SUBSTANCE ABUSE SERVICES

F.S. Ch. 397
in effect

F.S. 397.55 Prohibition of deceptive marketing practices.

(1) The Legislature recognizes that consumers of substance abuse treatment have disabling conditions and that such consumers and their families are vulnerable and at risk of being easily victimized by fraudulent marketing practices that adversely impact the delivery of health care. To protect the health, safety, and welfare of this vulnerable population, a service provider, an operator of a recovery residence, or a third party who provides any form of advertising or marketing services to a service provider or an operator of a recovery residence may not engage in any of the following marketing practices: (a) Making a false or misleading statement or providing false or misleading information about the provider’s or operator’s or third party’s products, goods, services, or geographical locations in its marketing, advertising materials, or media or on its website. (b) Including on its website false information or electronic links, coding, or activation that provides false information or that surreptitiously directs the reader to another website. (c) Conduct prohibited by s. 817.505. (d) Entering into a contract with a marketing provider who agrees to generate referrals or leads for the placement of patients with a service provider or in a recovery residence through a call center or a web-based presence, unless the contract requires such agreement and the marketing provider discloses the following to the prospective patient so that the patient can make an informed health care decision: 1. Information about the specific licensed service providers or recovery residences that are represented by the marketing provider and pay a fee to the marketing provider, including the identity of such service providers or recovery residences; and 2. Clear and concise instructions that allow the prospective patient to easily access lists of licensed service providers and recovery residences on the department website. (2) In addition to any other punishment authorized by law, a person or entity that knowingly and willfully violates paragraph (1)(a), paragraph (1)(b), or paragraph (1)(d) commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083. A violation of paragraph (1)(c) is a violation of the prohibition on patient brokering and may subject the party committing the violation to criminal penalties under s. 817.505.

F.S. 397.92 Children’s substance abuse services system; goals.

(1) It is the intent of the Legislature that the children’s substance abuse services system achieve the following performance outcomes for children who are eligible for services: (a) Identification of the presenting problems and conditions of substance abuse through the use of valid assessment. (b) Improvement in the child’s ability to function in the family with minimum supports. (c) Improvement in the child’s ability to function in school with minimum supports. (d) Improvement in the child’s ability to function in the community with minimum supports. (e) Improvement in the child’s ability to live drug-free. (f) Reduction of behaviors and conditions that may be linked to substance abuse, such as unintended pregnancy, delinquency, sexually transmitted diseases, and smoking, and other negative behaviors. (g) Increased return of children in state custody, drug-free, to their homes, or the placement of such children, drug-free, in an appropriate setting. (2) Pursuant to former s. 216.0166, the department shall annually develop performance outcomes and performance measures to assess the performance of the children’s substance abuse services system in achieving the intent of this section.

F.S. 397.95 Children’s substance abuse services; services provided by licensed providers.

Each substate entity of the department shall ensure that all screening, intake, assessment, enrollment, service planning, and case management services provided under this part are provided by children’s substance abuse services providers licensed under part II of this chapter and in accordance with standards set forth in department rules.

F.S. 397.96 Case management for complex substance abuse cases.

(1) Contingent upon specific appropriations, it is the intent of the Legislature to provide for a more intensive level of case management for complex cases involving children who need substance abuse services. Such services shall be directed toward children receiving services from several agencies or programs to address the complex problems created by substance abuse, dependency, or addiction. (2) The department shall determine when a child receiving children’s substance abuse services under this part shall have a case manager. (3) For the purposes of this section, “case management” means those activities aimed at: (a) Implementing a treatment plan; (b) Advocacy; (c) Linking services providers to a child and family; (d) Monitoring services delivery; and (e) Collecting information to determine the effect of services and treatment. (4) The case manager shall periodically review services utilization to ascertain compliance with plans approved by the planning team. (5) In the attempt to minimize duplication, it is the intent of the Legislature that a child have no more than one case manager.

F.S. 397.99 School substance abuse prevention partnership grants.

(1) GRANT PROGRAM. — (a) In order to encourage the development of effective substance abuse prevention and early intervention strategies for school-age populations, the school substance abuse prevention partnership grant program is established. (b) The department shall administer the program in cooperation with the Department of Education and the Department of Juvenile Justice. (2) APPLICATION PROCEDURES; FUNDING REQUIREMENTS. — (a) Schools, or community-based organizations in partnership with schools, may submit a grant proposal for funding or continued funding to the department by March 1 of each year. The department shall establish grant application procedures which ensure that grant recipients implement programs and practices that are effective. The department shall include the grant application document on an Internet website. (b) Grants may fund programs to conduct prevention activities serving students who are not involved in substance use, intervention activities serving students who are experimenting with substance use, or both prevention and intervention activities, if a comprehensive approach is indicated as a result of a needs assessment. (c) Grants may target youth, parents, and teachers and other school staff, coaches, social workers, case managers, and other prevention stakeholders. (d) Performance measures for grant program activities shall measure improvements in student attitudes or behaviors as determined by the department. (e) At least 50 percent of the grant funds available for local projects must be allocated to support the replication of prevention programs and practices that are based on research and have been evaluated and proven effective. The department shall develop related qualifying criteria. (f) In order to be considered for funding, the grant application shall include the following assurances and information: 1. A letter from the administrators of the programs collaborating on the project, such as the school principal, community-based organization executive director, or recreation department director, confirming that the grant application has been reviewed and that each partner is committed to supporting implementation of the activities described in the grant proposal. 2. A rationale and description of the program and the services to be provided, including: a. An analysis of prevention issues related to the substance abuse prevention profile of the target population. b. A description of other primary substance use and related risk factors. c. Goals and objectives based on the findings of the needs assessment. d. The selection of programs or strategies that have been shown to be effective in addressing the findings of the needs assessment. e. A method of identifying the target group for universal prevention strategies, and a method for identifying the individual student participants in selected and indicated prevention strategies. f. A description of how students will be targeted. g. Provisions for the participation of parents and guardians in the program. h. An evaluation component to measure the effectiveness of the program in accordance with performance-based program budgeting effectiveness measures. i. A program budget, which includes the amount and sources of local cash and in-kind resources committed to the budget and which establishes, to the satisfaction of the department, that the entity will make a cash or in-kind contribution to the program of a value that is at least 25 percent of the amount of the grant. (g) The department shall consider the following in awarding such grants: 1. The number of youths that will be targeted. 2. The validity of the program design to achieve project goals and objectives that are clearly related to performance-based program budgeting effectiveness measures. 3. The desirability of funding at least one approved project in each of the department’s substate entities. (3) The department shall coordinate the review of grant applications with the Department of Education and the Department of Juvenile Justice and shall make award determinations no later than June 30 of each year. All applicants shall be notified by the department of its final action. (4) Each entity that is awarded a grant as provided for in this section shall submit performance and output information as determined by the department.

F.S. 397.301 Short title.

This act may be cited as the “Hal S. Marchman Alcohol and Other Drug Services Act.”

F.S. 397.305 Legislative findings, intent, and purpose.

(1) Substance abuse is a major health problem that affects multiple service systems and leads to such profoundly disturbing consequences as serious impairment, chronic addiction, criminal behavior, vehicular casualties, spiraling health care costs, AIDS, and business losses, and significantly affects the culture, socialization, and learning ability of children within our schools and educational systems. Substance abuse impairment is a disease which affects the whole family and the whole society and requires a system of care that includes prevention, intervention, clinical treatment, and recovery support services that support and strengthen the family unit. Further, it is the intent of the Legislature to require the collaboration of state agencies, service systems, and program offices to achieve the goals of this chapter and address the needs of the public; to establish a comprehensive system of care for substance abuse; and to reduce duplicative requirements across state agencies. This chapter is designed to provide for substance abuse services. (2) It is the goal of the Legislature to discourage substance abuse by promoting healthy lifestyles; healthy families; and drug-free schools, workplaces, and communities. (3) It is the purpose of this chapter to provide for a comprehensive continuum of accessible and quality substance abuse prevention, intervention, clinical treatment, and recovery support services in the most appropriate and least restrictive environment which promotes long-term recovery while protecting and respecting the rights of individuals, primarily through community-based private not-for-profit providers working with local governmental programs involving a wide range of agencies from both the public and private sectors. (4) It is the intent of the Legislature that licensed, qualified health professionals be authorized to practice to the full extent of their education and training in the performance of professional functions necessary to carry out the intent of this chapter. (5) It is the intent of the Legislature to establish expectations that services provided to persons in this state use the coordination-of-care principles characteristic of recovery-oriented services and include social support services, such as housing support, life skills and vocational training, and employment assistance necessary for persons who have substance use disorders or co-occurring substance use and mental health disorders to live successfully in their communities. (6) It is the intent of the Legislature to ensure within available resources a full system of care for substance abuse services based on identified needs, delivered without discrimination and with adequate provision for specialized needs. (7) It is the intent of the Legislature to establish services for individuals with co-occurring substance abuse and mental disorders. (8) It is the intent of the Legislature to provide an alternative to criminal imprisonment for substance abuse impaired adults and juvenile offenders by encouraging the referral of such offenders to service providers not generally available within the juvenile justice and correctional systems, instead of or in addition to criminal penalties. (9) It is the intent of the Legislature to provide, within the limits of appropriations and safe management of the juvenile justice and correctional systems, substance abuse services to substance abuse impaired offenders who are placed by the Department of Juvenile Justice or who are incarcerated within the Department of Corrections, in order to better enable these offenders or inmates to adjust to the conditions of society presented to them when their terms of placement or incarceration end. (10) It is the intent of the Legislature to provide for assisting substance abuse impaired persons primarily through health and other rehabilitative services in order to relieve the police, courts, correctional institutions, and other criminal justice agencies of a burden that interferes with their ability to protect people, apprehend offenders, and maintain safe and orderly communities. (11) It is the intent of the Legislature that the freedom of religion of all citizens shall be inviolate. Nothing in this act shall give any governmental entity jurisdiction to regulate religious, spiritual, or ecclesiastical services.

F.S. 397.311 Definitions.

As used in this chapter, except part VIII, the term: (1) “Ancillary services” are services that include, but are not limited to, special diagnostic, prenatal and postnatal, other medical, mental health, legal, economic, vocational, employment, and educational services. (2) “Authorized agent of the department” means a person designated by the department to conduct any audit, inspection, monitoring, evaluation, or other duty imposed upon the department pursuant to this chapter. An authorized agent must be qualified by expertise and experience to perform these functions. (3) “Beyond the safe management capabilities of the service provider” refers to an individual who is in need of: (a) Supervision; (b) Medical care; or (c) Services, beyond that which the service provider or service component can deliver. (4) “Certificate of compliance” means a certificate that is issued by a credentialing entity to a recovery residence or a recovery residence administrator. (5) “Certified recovery residence” means a recovery residence that holds a valid certificate of compliance and is actively managed by a certified recovery residence administrator. (a) A Level I certified recovery residence houses individuals in recovery who have completed treatment, with a minimum of 9 months of sobriety. A Level I certified recovery residence is democratically run by the members who reside in the home. (b) A Level II certified recovery residence encompasses the traditional perspectives of sober living homes. There is oversight from a house manager who has experience with living in recovery. Residents are expected to follow rules outlined in a resident handbook provided by the certified recovery residence administrator. Residents must pay dues, if applicable, and work toward achieving realistic and defined milestones within a chosen recovery path. (c) A Level III certified recovery residence offers higher supervision by staff with formal training to ensure resident accountability. Such residences are staffed 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, and offer residents peer-support services, which may include, but are not limited to, life skill mentoring, recovery planning, and meal preparation. Clinical services may not be performed at the residence. Such residences are most appropriate for persons who require a more structured environment during early recovery from addiction. (d) A Level IV certified recovery residence is a residence offered, referred to, or provided by, a licensed service provider to its patients who are required to reside at the residence while receiving intensive outpatient and higher levels of outpatient care. Such residences are staffed 24 hours a day and combine outpatient licensable services with recovery residential living. Residents are required to follow a treatment plan and attend group and individual sessions, in addition to developing a recovery plan within the social model of living in a sober lifestyle. No clinical services are provided at the residence and all licensable services are provided offsite. (6) “Certified recovery residence administrator” means a recovery residence administrator who holds a valid certificate of compliance. (7) “Clinical assessment” means the collection of detailed information concerning an individual’s substance use, emotional and physical health, social roles, and other areas that may reflect the severity of the individual’s abuse of alcohol or drugs. The collection of information serves as a basis for identifying an appropriate treatment regimen. (8) “Clinical supervisor” means a person who meets the requirements of a qualified professional whose functions include managing personnel who provide direct clinical services or maintaining lead responsibility for the overall coordination and provision of clinical services. (9) “Community housing” means a certified recovery residence offered, referred to, or provided by a licensed service provider that provides housing to its patients who are required to reside at the residence while receiving intensive outpatient and higher levels of outpatient care. A certified recovery residence used by a licensed service provider that meets the definition of community housing shall be classified as a Level IV level of support, as described in subsection (5). (10) “Court” means the court of legal jurisdiction in the context in which the term is used in this chapter. (11) “Credentialing entity” means a nonprofit organization that develops and administers professional, facility, or organization certification programs according to applicable nationally recognized certification or psychometric standards. (12) “Department” means the Department of Children and Families. (13) “Director” means the chief administrative or executive officer of a service provider or recovery residence. (14) “Disclose” or “disclosure” means a communication of identifying information, the affirmative verification of another person’s communication of identifying information, or the communication of any information regarding an individual who has received services. Any disclosure made pursuant to this chapter must be limited to that information which is necessary to carry out the purpose of the disclosure. (15) “Fee system” means a method of establishing charges for services rendered, in accordance with an individual’s ability to pay, used by providers that receive state funds. (16) “For profit” means registered as for profit by the Secretary of State and recognized by the Internal Revenue Service as a for-profit entity. (17) “Habitual abuser” means a person who is brought to the attention of law enforcement for being substance impaired, who meets the criteria for involuntary admission in s. 397.675, and who has been taken into custody for such impairment three or more times during the preceding 12 months. (18) “Hospital” means a hospital or hospital-based component licensed under chapter 395. (19) “Identifying information” means the name, address, social security number, fingerprints, photograph, and similar information by which the identity of an individual can be determined with reasonable accuracy directly or by reference to other publicly available information. (20) “Impaired” or “substance abuse impaired” means having a substance use disorder or a condition involving the use of alcoholic beverages, illicit or prescription drugs, or any psychoactive or mood-altering substance in such a manner as to induce mental, emotional, or physical problems or cause socially dysfunctional behavior. (21) “Incompetent to consent to treatment” means a state in which a person’s judgment is so affected by a substance abuse impairment that he or she lacks the capacity to make a well-reasoned, willful, and knowing decision concerning his or her medical health, mental health, or substance abuse treatment. (22) “Individual” means a person who receives alcohol or other drug abuse treatment services delivered by a service provider. The term does not include an inmate pursuant to part VIII of this chapter unless expressly so provided. (23) “Informed consent” means consent voluntarily given in writing by a competent person after sufficient explanation and disclosure of the subject matter involved to enable the person to make a knowing and willful decision without any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or coercion. (24) “Involuntary treatment services” means an array of behavioral health services that may be ordered by the court for persons with substance abuse impairment or co-occurring substance abuse impairment and mental health disorders. (25) “Law enforcement officer” means a law enforcement officer as defined in s. 943.10(1). (26) “Licensed service provider” means a public agency under this chapter, a private for-profit or not-for-profit agency under this chapter, a physician or any other private practitioner licensed under this chapter, or a hospital that offers substance abuse services through one or more licensed service components. (27) Licensed service components include a comprehensive continuum of accessible and quality substance abuse prevention, intervention, and clinical treatment services, including the following services: (a) “Clinical treatment” means a professionally directed, deliberate, and planned regimen of services and interventions that are designed to reduce or eliminate the misuse of drugs and alcohol and promote a healthy, drug-free lifestyle. As defined by rule, “clinical treatment services” include, but are not limited to, the following licensable service components: 1. “Addictions receiving facility” is a secure, acute care facility that provides, at a minimum, detoxification and stabilization services; is operated 24 hours per day, 7 days per week; and is designated by the department to serve individuals found to be substance use impaired as described in s. 397.675 who meet the placement criteria for this component. 2. “Day or night treatment” is a service provided in a nonresidential environment, with a structured schedule of treatment and rehabilitative services. 3. “Day or night treatment with community housing” means a program intended for individuals who can benefit from living independently in peer community housing while participating in treatment services for a minimum of 5 hours a day for a minimum of 25 hours per week. 4. “Detoxification” is a service involving subacute care that is provided on an inpatient or an outpatient basis to assist individuals to withdraw from the physiological and psychological effects of substance abuse and who meet the placement criteria for this component. 5. “Intensive inpatient treatment” includes a planned regimen of evaluation, observation, medical monitoring, and clinical protocols delivered through an interdisciplinary team approach provided 24 hours per day, 7 days per week, in a highly structured, live-in environment. 6. “Intensive outpatient treatment” is a service that provides individual or group counseling in a more structured environment, is of higher intensity and duration than outpatient treatment, and is provided to individuals who meet the placement criteria for this component. 7. “Medication-assisted treatment for opioid use disorders” is a service that uses methadone or other medication as authorized by state and federal law, in combination with medical, rehabilitative, supportive, and counseling services in the treatment of individuals who are dependent on opioid drugs. 8. “Outpatient treatment” is a service that provides individual, group, or family counseling by appointment during scheduled operating hours for individuals who meet the placement criteria for this component. 9. “Residential treatment” is a service provided in a structured live-in environment within a nonhospital setting on a 24-hours-per-day, 7-days-per-week basis, and is intended for individuals who meet the placement criteria for this component. (b) “Intervention” means structured services directed toward individuals or groups at risk of substance abuse and focused on reducing or impeding those factors associated with the onset or the early stages of substance abuse and related problems. (c) “Prevention” means a process involving strategies that are aimed at the individual, family, community, or substance and that preclude, forestall, or impede the development of substance use problems and promote responsible lifestyles. (28) “Medication-assisted treatment (MAT)” is the use of medications approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, in combination with counseling and behavioral therapies, to provide a holistic approach to the treatment of substance abuse. (29) “Medical monitoring” means oversight and treatment, 24 hours per day by medical personnel who are licensed under chapter 458, chapter 459, or chapter 464, of individuals whose subacute problems are so severe that the individuals require intensive inpatient treatment by an interdisciplinary team. (30) “Not for profit” means registered as not for profit by the Secretary of State and recognized by the Internal Revenue Service as a not-for-profit entity. (31) “Peer specialist” means a person who has been in recovery from a substance use disorder or mental illness for at least 2 years who uses his or her personal experience to provide services in behavioral health settings to support others in their recovery, or a person who has at least 2 years of experience as a family member or caregiver of an individual who has a substance use disorder or mental illness. The term does not include a qualified professional or a person otherwise certified under chapter 394 or this chapter. (32) “Physician” means a person licensed under chapter 458 to practice medicine or licensed under chapter 459 to practice osteopathic medicine, and may include, if the context so indicates, an intern or resident enrolled in an intern or resident training program affiliated with an approved medical school, hospital, or other facility through which training programs are normally conducted. (33) “Physician assistant” means a person licensed under chapter 458 or chapter 459 to practice medicine under the supervision of a physician or psychiatrist whose specialty includes substance abuse treatment. (34) “Private practitioner” means a physician or a physician assistant licensed under chapter 458 or chapter 459, a psychologist licensed under chapter 490, or a clinical social worker, marriage and family therapist, or mental health counselor licensed under chapter 491. (35) “Program evaluation” or “evaluation” means a systematic measurement of a service provider’s achievement of desired individual or service outcomes. (36) “Qualified professional” means a physician or a physician assistant licensed under chapter 458 or chapter 459; a professional licensed under chapter 490 or chapter 491; an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under part I of chapter 464; or a person who is certified through a department-recognized certification process for substance abuse treatment services and who holds, at a minimum, a bachelor’s degree. A person who is certified in substance abuse treatment services by a state-recognized certification process in another state at the time of employment with a licensed substance abuse provider in this state may perform the functions of a qualified professional as defined in this chapter but must meet certification requirements contained in this subsection no later than 1 year after his or her date of employment. (37) “Quality improvement” means a systematic and organized approach to monitor and continuously improve the quality of services in order to maintain, restore, or improve outcomes in individuals and populations throughout a system of care. (38) “Recovery” means a process of personal change through which individuals achieve abstinence from alcohol or drug use and improve health, wellness, and quality of life. (39) “Recovery residence” means a residential dwelling unit, the community housing component of a licensed day or night treatment facility with community housing, or other form of group housing, which is offered or advertised through any means, including oral, written, electronic, or printed means, by any person or entity as a residence that provides a peer-supported, alcohol-free, and drug-free living environment. (40) “Recovery residence administrator” means the person responsible for overall management of the recovery residence, including, but not limited to, the supervision of residents and staff employed by, or volunteering for, the residence. (41) “Recovery support” means services designed to strengthen or assist individuals to regain skills, develop the environmental supports necessary to help the individual thrive in the community, and meet life goals that promote recovery from alcohol and drug use. These services include, but are not limited to, economic, vocational, employment, educational, housing, and other ancillary services. (42) “Screening” means the gathering of initial information to be used in determining a person’s need for assessment, services, or referral. (43) “Secure facility,” except where the context indicates a correctional system facility, means a provider that has the authority to deter the premature departure of involuntary individuals whose leaving constitutes a violation of a court order or community-based supervision as provided by law. The term “secure facility” includes addictions receiving facilities and facilities authorized by local ordinance for the treatment of habitual abusers. (44) “Service component” or “component” means a discrete operational entity within a service provider which is subject to licensing as defined by rule. Service components include prevention, intervention, and clinical treatment described in subsection (27). (45) “Service provider” or “provider” means a public agency, a private for-profit or not-for-profit agency, a person who is a private practitioner, or a hospital licensed under this chapter or exempt from licensure under this chapter. (46) “Service provider personnel” or “personnel” includes all owners, directors, chief financial officers, staff, and volunteers, including foster parents, of a service provider. (47) “Stabilization” means: (a) Alleviation of a crisis condition; or (b) Prevention of further deterioration, and connotes short-term emergency treatment. (48) “Substance abuse” means the misuse or abuse of, or dependence on alcohol, illicit drugs, or prescription medications. As an individual progresses along this continuum of misuse, abuse, and dependence, there is an increased need for substance abuse intervention and treatment to help abate the problem. (49) “Substate entity” means a departmental office designated to serve a geographical area specified by the department. (50) “System of care” means a coordinated continuum of community-based services and supports that are organized to meet the challenges and needs of individuals who are at risk of developing substance abuse problems or individuals who have substance abuse problems. (51) “Treatment plan” means an immediate and a long-range plan based upon an individual’s assessed needs and used to address and monitor an individual’s recovery from substance abuse.

F.S. 397.321 Duties of the department.

The department shall: (1) Develop a comprehensive state plan for the provision of substance abuse services. The plan must include: (a) Identification of incidence and prevalence of problems related to substance abuse. (b) Description of current services. (c) Need for services. (d) Cost of services. (e) Priorities for funding. (f) Strategies to address the identified needs and priorities. (g) Resource planning. (2) Ensure that a plan for substance abuse services is developed at the local substate entity level in accordance with the provisions of part IV of chapter 394. (3) Provide on a direct or contractual basis, within the context of funds made available by appropriation: (a) Public education programs and an information clearinghouse to disseminate information about the nature and effects of substance abuse. (b) Training for personnel who provide substance abuse services. (c) A data collection and dissemination system, in accordance with applicable federal confidentiality regulations. (d) Basic epidemiological and statistical research and the dissemination of results. (e) Research in cooperation with qualified researchers on services delivered pursuant to this chapter. (4) Establish a funding program for the dissemination of available federal, state, and private funds through contractual agreements with community-based organizations or units of state or local government which deliver local substance abuse services. (5) Assume responsibility for adopting rules as necessary to comply with this chapter, including other state agencies in this effort, as appropriate. (6) Assume responsibility for licensing and regulating licensable service components delivering substance abuse services on behalf of service providers pursuant to this chapter. (7) Ensure that each licensed service provider develops a system and procedures for: (a) Clinical assessment. (b) Treatment planning. (c) Referral. (d) Progress reviews. (e) Followup. (8) Provide for the systematic and comprehensive program evaluation of substance abuse service providers that are state-owned, state-operated, or state-contracted. (9) Advise the Governor in the preparation of plans to be submitted for federal funding and support. (10) Provide a system of documentation and reporting commensurate with the requirements of federal and other agencies providing funding to the state. (11) Provide, within available funds, training and technical assistance to other state agencies relative to the problem of substance abuse and develop joint agreements with other state agencies to enhance the sharing of information and services. (12) Develop standards for employee assistance programs for employees of state government, local governments, and private business. (13) Ensure that service provider personnel have background checks as required in this chapter and meet the minimum standards. (14) In cooperation with service providers, foster and actively seek additional funding to enhance resources for prevention, intervention, clinical treatment, and recovery support services, including, but not limited to, the development of partnerships with: (a) Private industry. (b) Intradepartmental and interdepartmental program offices, including, but not limited to, child care services; family safety; delinquency services; health services; economic services; and children’s medical services. (c) State agencies, including, but not limited to, the Department of Corrections, the Department of Education, the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Elderly Affairs, the Department of Health, the Department of Financial Services, and the Agency for Health Care Administration. (15) Recognize a statewide certification process for addiction professionals and identify and endorse one or more entities responsible for such certification of service provider personnel. Any decision by a department-recognized credentialing entity to deny, revoke, or suspend a certification, or otherwise impose sanctions on an individual who is certified, is reviewable by the department. Upon receiving an adverse determination, the person aggrieved may request an administrative hearing pursuant to ss. 120.569 and 120.57(1) within 30 days after completing any appeals process offered by the credentialing entity or the department, as applicable. (16) Provide sufficient and qualified staff to oversee all contracting, licensing, and planning functions within each of its substate offices, as permitted by legislative appropriation. (17) Ensure that the department develops and ensures the implementation of procedures between its Substance Abuse Program Office and other departmental programs regarding the referral of substance abuse impaired persons to service providers, information on service providers, information on methods of identifying substance abuse impaired juveniles, and procedures for referring such juveniles to appropriate service providers. (18) Designate addictions receiving facilities for the purpose of ensuring that only qualified service providers render services within the context of a secure facility setting. (19) Develop and prominently display on its website all forms necessary for the implementation and administration of parts IV and V of this chapter. These forms shall include, but are not limited to, a petition for involuntary admission form and all related pleading forms, and a form to be used by law enforcement agencies pursuant to s. 397.6772. The department shall notify law enforcement agencies, the courts, and other state agencies of the existence and availability of such forms.

F.S. 397.333 Statewide Drug Policy Advisory Council.

(1)(a) The Statewide Drug Policy Advisory Council shall be located in the Department of Health. The Surgeon General or his or her designee shall be a nonvoting, ex officio member of the advisory council and shall act as chairperson. The director of the Office of Planning and Budgeting or his or her designee shall be a nonvoting, ex officio member of the advisory council. The Department of Health or its successor agency shall provide staff support for the advisory council. (b) The following state officials shall be appointed to serve on the advisory council: 1. The Attorney General, or his or her designee. 2. The executive director of the Department of Law Enforcement, or his or her designee. 3. The Secretary of Children and Families, or his or her designee. 4. The director of the Office of Planning and Budgeting in the Executive Office of the Governor, or his or her designee. 5. The Secretary of Corrections, or his or her designee. 6. The Secretary of Juvenile Justice, or his or her designee. 7. The Commissioner of Education, or his or her designee. 8. The executive director of the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles, or his or her designee. 9. The Adjutant General of the state as the Chief of the Department of Military Affairs, or his or her designee. (c) In addition, the Governor shall appoint 7 members of the public to serve on the advisory council. Of the 7 appointed members, one member must have professional or occupational expertise in drug enforcement, one member must have professional or occupational expertise in substance abuse prevention, one member must have professional or occupational expertise in substance abuse treatment, and two members must have professional or occupational expertise in faith-based substance abuse treatment services. The remainder of the members appointed should have professional or occupational expertise in, or be generally knowledgeable about, issues that relate to drug enforcement and substance abuse programs and services. The members appointed by the Governor must, to the extent possible, equitably represent all geographic areas of the state. (d) The President of the Senate shall appoint a member of the Senate to the advisory council and the Speaker of the House of Representatives shall appoint a member of the House of Representatives to the advisory council. (e) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court shall appoint a member of the judiciary to the advisory council. (f) Members appointed by the Governor, the President of the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the Chief Justice shall be appointed to terms of 4 years each. However, for the purpose of providing staggered terms, of the Governor’s initial appointments, five members shall be appointed to 2-year terms and six members shall be appointed to 4-year terms. (2)(a) Any vacancy on the advisory council shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment, and any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring because of death, resignation, or ineligibility for membership shall serve only for the unexpired term of the member’s predecessor. A member is eligible for reappointment. (b) Members of the advisory council and members of workgroups appointed under subsection (4) shall serve without compensation, but are entitled to reimbursement for per diem and travel expenses as provided in s. 112.061. (c) The advisory council shall meet at least quarterly or upon the call of the chairperson. (3) The advisory council shall: (a) Conduct a comprehensive analysis of the problem of substance abuse in this state and make recommendations to the Governor and Legislature for developing and implementing a state drug control strategy. The advisory council shall determine the most effective means of establishing clear and meaningful lines of communication between the advisory council and the public and private sectors in order to ensure that the process of developing and implementing the state drug control strategy has afforded a broad spectrum of the public and private sectors an opportunity to comment and make recommendations. (b) Review and make recommendations to the Governor and Legislature on funding substance abuse programs and services, consistent with the state drug control strategy, as developed. The council may recommend the creation of a separate appropriations category for funding services delivered or procured by state agencies and may recommend the use of performance-based contracting as provided in s. 414.065. (c) Review various substance abuse programs and recommend, where needed, measures that are sufficient to determine program outcomes. The council shall review different methodologies for evaluating programs and determine whether programs within different agencies have common outcomes. The methodologies shall be consistent with those established under former s. 216.0166. (d) Review the drug control strategies and programs of, and efforts by, other states and the Federal Government and compile the relevant research. (e) Recommend to the Governor and Legislature applied research projects that would use research capabilities within the state, including, but not limited to, the resources of the State University System, for the purpose of achieving improved outcomes and making better-informed strategic budgetary decisions. (f) Recommend to the Governor and Legislature changes in law which would remove barriers to or enhance the implementation of the state drug control strategy. (g) Make recommendations to the Governor and the Legislature on the need for public information campaigns to be conducted in the state to limit substance abuse. (h) Ensure that there is a coordinated, integrated, and multidisciplinary response to the substance abuse problem in this state, with special attention given to creating partnerships within and between the public and private sectors, and to the coordinated, supported, and integrated delivery of multiple-system services for substance abusers, including a multiagency team approach to service delivery. (i) Assist communities and families in pooling their knowledge and experiences with respect to the problem of substance abuse. Forums for exchanging ideas, experiences, and practical information, as well as instruction, should be considered. For communities, such instruction may involve issues of funding, staffing, training, and neighborhood and parental involvement, and instruction on other issues. For families, such instruction may involve practical strategies for addressing family substance abuse; improving cognitive, communication, and decisionmaking skills; providing parents with techniques for resolving conflicts, communicating, and cultivating meaningful relationships with their children and establishing guidelines for their children; educating families about drug-free programs and activities in which they may serve as participants and planners; and other programs of similar instruction. To maximize the effectiveness of such forums, multiple agencies should participate. (j) Examine the extent to which all state programs that involve substance abuse treatment can include a meaningful work component, and identify any change in the law which would remove barriers to or enhance the work component for a substance abuse treatment program. (k) Recommend to the Governor and the Legislature ways to expand and fund drug courts, which have proven effective in the state’s drug control strategy. (4)(a) The chairperson of the advisory council shall appoint workgroups that include members of state agencies that are not represented on the advisory council and shall solicit input and recommendations from those state agencies. In addition, the chairperson may appoint workgroups as necessary from among the members of the advisory council in order to efficiently address specific issues. A representative of a state agency appointed to any workgroup shall be the head of the agency, or his or her designee. The chairperson may designate lead and contributing agencies within a workgroup. (b) The advisory council shall submit a report to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives by December 1 of each year which contains a summary of the work of the council during that year and the recommendations required under subsection (3). Interim reports may be submitted at the discretion of the chairperson of the advisory council.

F.S. 397.334 Treatment-based drug court programs.

(1) Each county may fund a treatment-based drug court program under which persons in the justice system assessed with a substance abuse problem will be processed in such a manner as to appropriately address the severity of the identified substance abuse problem through treatment services tailored to the individual needs of the participant. It is the intent of the Legislature to encourage the Department of Corrections, the Department of Children and Families, the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Health, the Department of Law Enforcement, the Department of Education, and such agencies, local governments, law enforcement agencies, other interested public or private sources, and individuals to support the creation and establishment of these problem-solving court programs. Participation in the treatment-based drug court programs does not divest any public or private agency of its responsibility for a child or adult, but enables these agencies to better meet their needs through shared responsibility and resources. (2) Entry into any pretrial treatment-based drug court program shall be voluntary. When s. 948.08(6)(c)1. does not apply, the court may order an eligible individual to enter into a pretrial treatment-based drug court program only upon written agreement by the individual, which shall include a statement that the individual understands the requirements of the program and the potential sanctions for noncompliance. (3)(a) Entry into any postadjudicatory treatment-based drug court program as a condition of probation or community control pursuant to s. 948.01, s. 948.06, or s. 948.20 must be based upon the sentencing court’s assessment of the defendant’s criminal history, substance abuse screening outcome, amenability to the services of the program, total sentence points, the recommendation of the state attorney and the victim, if any, and the defendant’s agreement to enter the program. (b) An offender who is sentenced to a postadjudicatory drug court program and who, while a drug court participant, is the subject of a violation of probation or community control under s. 948.06 shall have the violation of probation or community control heard by the judge presiding over the postadjudicatory drug court program. The judge shall dispose of any such violation, after a hearing on or admission of the violation, as he or she deems appropriate if the resulting sentence or conditions are lawful. (4) The treatment-based drug court programs shall include therapeutic jurisprudence principles and adhere to the following 10 key components, recognized by the Drug Courts Program Office of the Office of Justice Programs of the United States Department of Justice and adopted by the Florida Supreme Court Treatment-Based Drug Court Steering Committee: (a) Drug court programs integrate alcohol and other drug treatment services with justice system case processing. (b) Using a nonadversarial approach, prosecution and defense counsel promote public safety while protecting participants’ due process rights. (c) Eligible participants are identified early and promptly placed in the drug court program. (d) Drug court programs provide access to a continuum of alcohol, drug, and other related treatment and rehabilitation services. (e) Abstinence is monitored by frequent testing for alcohol and other drugs. (f) A coordinated strategy governs drug court program responses to participants’ compliance. (g) Ongoing judicial interaction with each drug court program participant is essential. (h) Monitoring and evaluation measure the achievement of program goals and gauge program effectiveness. (i) Continuing interdisciplinary education promotes effective drug court program planning, implementation, and operations. (j) Forging partnerships among drug court programs, public agencies, and community-based organizations generates local support and enhances drug court program effectiveness. (5) Treatment-based drug court programs may include pretrial intervention programs as provided in ss. 948.08, 948.16, and 985.345, treatment-based drug court programs authorized in chapter 39, postadjudicatory programs as provided in ss. 948.01, 948.06, and 948.20, and review of the status of compliance or noncompliance of sentenced offenders through a treatment-based drug court program. While enrolled in a treatment-based drug court program, the participant is subject to a coordinated strategy developed by a drug court team under subsection (4). The coordinated strategy may include a protocol of sanctions that may be imposed upon the participant for noncompliance with program rules. The protocol of sanctions may include, but is not limited to, placement in a substance abuse treatment program offered by a licensed service provider as defined in s. 397.311 or in a jail-based treatment program or serving a period of secure detention under chapter 985 if a child or a period of incarceration within the time limits established for contempt of court if an adult. The coordinated strategy must be provided in writing to the participant before the participant agrees to enter into a treatment-based drug court program. (6)(a) Contingent upon an annual appropriation by the Legislature, each judicial circuit shall establish, at a minimum, one coordinator position for the treatment-based drug court program within the state courts system to coordinate the responsibilities of the participating agencies and service providers. Each coordinator shall provide direct support to the treatment-based drug court program by providing coordination between the multidisciplinary team and the judiciary, providing case management, monitoring compliance of the participants in the treatment-based drug court program with court requirements, and managing the collection of data for program evaluation and accountability. (b) Each treatment-based drug court program shall collect sufficient client-level data and programmatic information for purposes of program evaluation. Client-level data includes primary offenses that resulted in the treatment-based drug court program referral or sentence, treatment compliance, completion status and reasons for failure to complete, offenses committed during treatment and the sanctions imposed, frequency of court appearances, and units of service. Programmatic information includes referral and screening procedures, eligibility criteria, type and duration of treatment offered, and residential treatment resources. Each treatment-based drug court program must annually report the programmatic information and aggregate data on the number of treatment-based drug court program admissions and terminations by type of termination to the Office of the State Courts Administrator. (7)(a) The Florida Association of Drug Court Professionals is created. The membership of the association may consist of treatment-based drug court program practitioners who comprise the multidisciplinary treatment-based drug court program team, including, but not limited to, judges, state attorneys, defense counsel, treatment-based drug court program coordinators, probation officers, law enforcement officers, community representatives, members of the academic community, and treatment professionals. Membership in the association shall be voluntary. (b) The association shall annually elect a chair whose duty is to solicit recommendations from members on issues relating to the expansion, operation, and institutionalization of treatment-based drug court programs. The chair is responsible for providing on or before October 1 of each year the association’s recommendations and an annual report to the appropriate Supreme Court committee or to the appropriate personnel of the Office of the State Courts Administrator. (8) If a county chooses to fund a treatment-based drug court program, the county must secure funding from sources other than the state for those costs not otherwise assumed by the state pursuant to s. 29.004. However, this does not preclude counties from using treatment and other service dollars provided through state executive branch agencies. Counties may provide, by interlocal agreement, for the collective funding of these programs. (9) The chief judge of each judicial circuit may appoint an advisory committee for the treatment-based drug court program. The committee shall be composed of the chief judge, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chair; the judge of the treatment-based drug court program, if not otherwise designated by the chief judge as his or her designee; the state attorney, or his or her designee; the public defender, or his or her designee; the treatment-based drug court program coordinators; community representatives; treatment representatives; and any other persons the chair finds are appropriate. (10)(a) Information relating to a participant or a person considered for participation in a treatment-based drug court program which is contained in the following records is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution: 1. Records created or compiled during screenings for participation in the program. 2. Records created or compiled during substance abuse screenings. 3. Behavioral health evaluations. 4. Subsequent treatment status reports. (b) Such confidential and exempt information may be disclosed: 1. Pursuant to a written request of the participant or person considered for participation, or his or her legal representative. 2. To another governmental entity in the furtherance of its responsibilities associated with the screening of a person considered for participation in or the provision of treatment to a person in a treatment-based drug court program. (c) Records of a service provider which pertain to the identity, diagnosis, and prognosis of or provision of service to any person shall be disclosed pursuant to s. 397.501(7). (d) This exemption applies to such information described in paragraph (a) relating to a participant or a person considered for participation in a treatment-based drug court program before, on, or after the effective date of this exemption.

F.S. 397.335 Statewide Council on Opioid Abatement.

(1) ESTABLISHMENT. — The Statewide Council on Opioid Abatement, an advisory council as defined in s. 20.03(7), is created within the department for the purpose of enhancing the development and coordination of state and local efforts to abate the opioid epidemic and to support the victims and families of the crisis. (2) MEMBERSHIP. — (a) Notwithstanding s. 20.052, the council shall be composed of the following members: 1. The Attorney General, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chair. 2. The secretary of the department, or his or her designee, who shall serve as vice chair. 3. One member appointed by the Governor. 4. One member appointed by the President of the Senate. 5. One member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives. 6. Two members appointed by the Florida League of Cities who are commissioners or mayors of municipalities. One member shall be from a municipality with a population of fewer than 50,000 people. 7. Two members appointed by or through the Florida Association of Counties who are county commissioners or mayors. One member shall be appointed from a county with a population of fewer than 200,000, and one member shall be appointed from a county with a population of more than 200,000. 8. One member who is either a county commissioner or county mayor appointed by the Florida Association of Counties or who is a commissioner or mayor of a municipality appointed by the Florida League of Cities. The Florida Association of Counties shall appoint such member for the initial term, and future appointments must alternate between a member appointed by the Florida League of Cities and a member appointed by the Florida Association of Counties. (b) Each member shall serve a 2-year term. Any vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment for the remainder of the unexpired term. (c) A member may not receive a commission, fee, or financial benefit in connection with serving on the council. Council members may be reimbursed for per diem and travel expenses in accordance with s. 112.061 by the state agency that the member represents. If the member is not affiliated with a state agency, the member shall be reimbursed by the department. (3) ORGANIZATION AND SUPPORT. — (a) The first meeting of the council must be held by August 31, 2023. (b) The council shall meet quarterly and upon the call of the chair or two other members. Meetings of the council may take place in person or through electronic transmission using communications media technology as described in s. 120.54(5)(b)2. (c) A majority of the members of the council shall constitute a quorum. (d) The department and the Department of Legal Affairs shall provide the council with staff necessary to assist the council in the performance of its duties. (e) The council may apply for and accept funds, grants, gifts, and services from the state, the Federal Government or any of its agencies, or any other public or private source for the purposes of defraying costs or performing its duties. (f) All members shall adhere to all applicable general law, rules, and regulations, including, but not limited to, s. 112.311, concerning the disclosure of conflicts of interest and recusal from discussions or votes on conflicted matters. (4) DUTIES. — (a) The council shall advise the state and local governments on resolving or abating the opioid epidemic and review how settlement moneys recovered from the opioid litigation brought by the state and its subdivisions have been spent and the results that have been achieved from those expenditures. (b) The council shall work with, provide information to, and receive information from the Statewide Drug Policy Advisory Council and ensure that its recommendations and actions are consistent with that council’s recommendations to the extent possible. (c) The council shall review data from local, state, and national agencies, both on a regional and a statewide basis, to advise state and local governments on the status, severity, and stage of the opioid epidemic. (d) The council shall review data from local governments, other states, and national agencies regarding how moneys are being spent to abate the opioid epidemic, the success of such programs, and the appropriate metrics needed to assess the epidemic and progress in abating it. (e) By June 30 of each year, each county, municipality, managing entity, or state agency that receives settlement funds from an opioid settlement shall provide information to the council related to how it intends to use settlement funds and how it intends to collect data regarding its use of funds. (f) By August 31 of each year, each county, municipality, managing entity, or state agency that receives settlement funds from an opioid settlement must provide information to the council related to its expenditure of settlement funds and the results obtained from those expenditures. (g) The council shall develop and recommend metrics, measures, or datasets to assess the progress and success of programs funded by expenditures of opioid settlement funds. The council must attempt to keep such metrics, measures, or datasets consistent with those used by the state with managing entities, as well as any metrics, measures, or datasets required by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration of the United States Department of Health and Human Services in connection with any grants received by the state. Upon request of the council, a county, municipality, managing entity, or state agency must provide the council data or information required to develop such metrics, measures, or datasets. (h) The council, with assistance and support of the department, shall provide a system of documentation and reporting in accordance with the requirements of federal agencies and any other agencies providing funding to the state, including auditing expenditures consistent with any requirements imposed by the Legislature. (i) By each December 1, the council shall provide and publish an annual report. The report shall contain information on how settlement moneys were spent the previous fiscal year by the state, each of the managing entities, and each of the counties and municipalities. The report shall also contain recommendations to the Governor, the Legislature, and local governments for how moneys should be prioritized and spent in the coming fiscal year to respond to the opioid epidemic. (j) The report shall be posted on the websites of the department and the Department of Legal Affairs.

F.S. 397.341 Transportation of individuals by law enforcement officers.

A law enforcement officer transporting an individual pursuant to this chapter shall restrain that individual in the least restrictive manner available and appropriate under the circumstances.

F.S. 397.401 License required; penalty; injunction; rules waivers.

(1) It is unlawful for any person or agency to act as a substance abuse service provider unless it is licensed or exempt from licensure under this chapter. (2) A violation of subsection (1) is a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084. (3) The department may maintain an action in circuit court to enjoin the unlawful operation of a substance abuse service provider if the department first gives the violator 14 days’ notice of its intent to maintain such action and the violator fails to apply for licensure within that 14-day period. If the department determines that the health, safety, and welfare of individuals are jeopardized, the department may move to enjoin the operation at any time during the 14-day period. If the service provider has already applied for licensure under this chapter and has been denied licensure, the department may move immediately to obtain an injunction. (4) In accordance with this subsection, the department may waive rules adopted pursuant to this chapter in order to allow service providers to demonstrate and evaluate innovative or cost-effective substance abuse services alternatives. Rules waivers may be granted only in instances where there is reasonable assurance that the health, safety, or welfare of individuals will not be endangered. To apply for a rules waiver, the applicant must be a service provider licensed under this chapter and must submit to the department a written description of the concept to be demonstrated, including: (a) Objectives and anticipated benefits. (b) The number and types of individuals who will be affected. (c) A description of how the demonstration will be evaluated. (d) Any other information requested by the department. A service provider granted a rules waiver under this subsection must submit a detailed report of the results of its findings to the department within 12 months after receiving the rules waiver. Upon receiving and evaluating the detailed report, the department may renew or revoke the rules waiver or seek any regulatory or statutory changes necessary to allow other service providers to implement the same alternative service. (5) The department shall allow a service provider in operation at the time of adoption of any rule a reasonable period, not to exceed 1 year, to bring itself into compliance with the rule. (6) A service provider operating an addictions receiving facility or providing detoxification on a nonhospital inpatient basis may not exceed its licensed capacity by more than 10 percent and may not exceed their licensed capacity for more than 3 consecutive working days or for more than 7 days in 1 month.

F.S. 397.403 License application.

(1) Applicants for a license under this chapter must apply to the department on forms provided by the department and in accordance with rules adopted by the department. Applications must include at a minimum: (a) Information establishing the name and address of the applicant service provider and its director, and also of each member, owner, officer, and shareholder, if any. (b) Information establishing the competency and ability of the applicant service provider and its director to carry out the requirements of this chapter. (c) Proof satisfactory to the department of the applicant service provider’s financial ability and organizational capability to operate in accordance with this chapter. (d) Proof of liability insurance coverage in amounts set by the department by rule. (e) Sufficient information to conduct background screening for all owners, directors, chief financial officers, and clinical supervisors as provided in s. 397.4073. (f) Proof of satisfactory fire, safety, and health inspections, and compliance with local zoning ordinances. Service providers operating under a regular annual license shall have 18 months from the expiration date of their regular license within which to meet local zoning requirements. Applicants for a new license must demonstrate proof of compliance with zoning requirements prior to the department issuing a probationary license. (g) A comprehensive outline of the proposed services, including sufficient detail to evaluate compliance with clinical and treatment best practices, for: 1. Any new applicant; or 2. Any licensed service provider adding a new licensable service component. (h) Proof of the ability to provide services in accordance with department rules. (i) Any other information that the department finds necessary to determine the applicant’s ability to carry out its duties under this chapter and applicable rules. (j) The names and locations of any recovery residences to which the applicant service provider plans to refer patients or from which the applicant service provider plans to accept patients. (k) Proof of a prohibition on the premises against alcohol, marijuana, illegal drugs, and the use of prescribed medications by an individual other than the individual for whom the medication is prescribed. For the purposes of this paragraph, “marijuana” includes marijuana that has been certified by a qualified physician for medical use in accordance with s. 381.986. (2) The department shall accept proof of accreditation by an accrediting organization whose standards incorporate comparable licensure regulations required by this state, or through another nationally recognized certification process that is acceptable to the department and meets the minimum licensure requirements under this chapter, in lieu of requiring the applicant to submit the information required by paragraphs (1)(a)-(c). (3) Applications for licensure renewal must include proof of application for accreditation for each licensed service component providing clinical treatment by an accrediting organization that is acceptable to the department for the first renewal, and proof of accreditation for any subsequent renewals. This subsection does not apply to any inmate substance abuse program operated by or under an exclusive contract with a jail or the Department of Corrections. (4) The burden of proof with respect to any requirement for application for licensure as a service provider under this chapter is on the applicant. (5) An applicant who willfully and knowingly makes a false representation of material fact in a license application or who willfully and knowingly omits any material fact from a license application commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

F.S. 397.407 Licensure process; fees.

(1) The department shall establish the licensure process to include fees and categories of licenses and must prescribe a fee range that is based, at least in part, on the number and complexity of programs listed in s. 397.311(27) which are operated by a licensee. The fees from the licensure of service components are sufficient to cover the costs of regulating the service components. The department shall specify a fee range for public and privately funded licensed service providers. Fees for privately funded licensed service providers must exceed the fees for publicly funded licensed service providers. (2) The department shall assess a fee of $100 per licensed service component for the late filing of an application for renewal of a license. (3) Licensure and renewal fees must be deposited in the Operations and Maintenance Trust Fund to be used for the actual cost of monitoring, inspecting, and overseeing licensed service providers. (4) Each application for licensure or renewal must be accompanied by the required fee, except that a service provider that has an all-volunteer staff is exempt from the licensure and renewal fees. (5) The department shall conduct background screening, as provided in s. 397.4073, as part of the licensure application for all owners, directors, chief financial officers, and clinical supervisors of a service provider. If the results of the background screening indicate that the individual has been found guilty of, regardless of adjudication, or has entered a plea of nolo contendere or guilty to any offense prohibited under the screening standard, a license may not be issued to the applicant service provider unless an exemption from disqualification has been granted by the department as set forth in chapter 435. The individual has 90 days within which to obtain the required exemption, during which time the applicant’s license remains in effect. (6) The department may issue probationary, regular, and interim licenses. The department may issue one license for all service components operated by a service provider and defined pursuant to s. 397.311(27). The license is valid only for the specific service components listed for each specific location identified on the license. The licensed service provider shall apply for the addition of any service components and obtain approval before initiating additional services. The licensed service provider must notify the department and provide any required documentation at least 30 days before the relocation of any of its service sites. Provision of service components or delivery of services at a location not identified on the license may be considered an unlicensed operation that authorizes the department to seek an injunction against operation as provided in s. 397.401, in addition to other sanctions authorized by s. 397.415. Probationary and regular licenses may be issued only after all required information has been submitted. A license may not be transferred. As used in this subsection, the term “transfer” includes, but is not limited to, the transfer of a majority of the ownership interest in the licensed entity or transfer of responsibilities under the license to another entity by contractual arrangement. (7) Upon receipt of a complete application, payment of applicable fees, and a demonstration of substantial compliance with all applicable statutory and regulatory requirements, the department may issue a probationary license to a service provider applicant with services that are not yet fully operational. The department may not issue a probationary license when doing so would place the health, safety, or welfare of individuals at risk. A probationary license expires 90 days after issuance and may not be reissued. During the probationary period the department shall monitor the delivery of services. Notwithstanding s. 120.60(5), the department may order a probationary licensee to cease and desist operations at any time it is found to be substantially out of compliance with licensure standards. This cease-and-desist order is exempt from the requirements of s. 120.60(6). (8) A regular license may be issued to: (a) A new applicant at the end of the probationary period. (b) A licensed applicant that holds a regular license and is seeking renewal. (c) An applicant for a service component operating under an interim license upon successful satisfaction of the requirements for a regular license. In order to be issued a regular license, the applicant must be in compliance with statutory and regulatory requirements. An application for renewal of a regular license must be submitted to the department at least 60 days before the license expires. The department may deny a renewal application submitted fewer than 30 days before the license expires. (9) The department may issue an interim license to a service provider for a period established by the department which does not exceed 90 days if the department finds that: (a) A service component of the provider is in substantial noncompliance with licensure standards; (b) The service provider has failed to provide satisfactory proof of conformance to fire, safety, or health requirements; or (c) The service provider is involved in license suspension or revocation proceedings. An interim license applies only to the licensable service component of the provider’s services which is in substantial noncompliance with statutory or regulatory requirements. An interim license expires 90 days after it is issued; however, it may be reissued once for an additional 90-day period in a case of extreme hardship in which the noncompliance is not attributable to the licensed service provider. If the service provider is appealing the final disposition of license suspension or revocation proceedings, the court before which the appeal is taken may order the extension of the interim license for a period specified in the order. (10) The license must be displayed in a conspicuous place inside the facility providing the licensed service component.

F.S. 397.410 Licensure requirements; minimum standards; rules.

(1) The department shall establish minimum requirements for licensure of each service component, as defined in s. 397.311(27), including, but not limited to: (a) Standards and procedures for the administrative management of the licensed service component, including procedures for recordkeeping, referrals, and financial management. (b) Standards consistent with clinical and treatment best practices that ensure the provision of quality treatment for individuals receiving substance abuse treatment services. (c) The number and qualifications of all personnel, including, but not limited to, management, nursing, and qualified professionals, having responsibility for any part of an individual’s clinical treatment. These requirements must include, but are not limited to: 1. Education; credentials, such as licensure or certification, if appropriate; training; and supervision of personnel providing direct clinical treatment. 2. Minimum staffing ratios to provide adequate safety, care, and treatment. 3. Hours of staff coverage. 4. The maximum number of individuals who may receive clinical services together in a group setting. 5. The maximum number of licensed service providers for which a physician may serve as medical director and the total number of individuals he or she may treat in that capacity. (d) Service provider facility standards, including, but not limited to: 1. Safety and adequacy of the facility and grounds. 2. Space, furnishings, and equipment for each individual served. 3. Infection control, housekeeping, sanitation, and facility maintenance. 4. Meals and snacks. (e) Disaster planning policies and procedures. (f) A prohibition on the premises against alcohol, marijuana, illegal drugs, and the use of prescribed medications by an individual other than the individual for whom the medication is prescribed. For the purposes of this paragraph, “marijuana” includes marijuana that has been certified by a qualified physician for medical use in accordance with s. 381.986. (2) The department shall adopt rules to provide that if the criteria established under subsection (1) are not met, such deficiencies shall be classified according to the nature and the scope of the deficiency. The scope shall be cited as isolated, patterned, or widespread. The department shall indicate the classification on the face of the notice of deficiencies in accordance with s. 397.411. (a) An isolated deficiency is a deficiency affecting one or a very limited number of individuals or involving one or a very limited number of staff, or a situation that occurred only occasionally or in a very limited number of locations. (b) A patterned deficiency is a deficiency where more than a very limited number of individuals are affected or more than a very limited number of staff are involved, the situation has occurred in several locations, or the same individual or individuals have been affected by repeated occurrences of the same deficient practice but the effect of the deficient practice is not found to be pervasive throughout the facility. (c) A widespread deficiency is a deficiency in which the problems causing the deficiency are pervasive throughout the facility or represent systemic failure that has affected or has the potential to affect a large portion of individuals.

F.S. 397.411 Inspection; right of entry; classification of violations; records.

(1)(a) An authorized agent of the department may conduct announced or unannounced inspections, at any time, of a licensed service provider to determine whether it is in compliance with statutory and regulatory requirements, including, but not limited to, the minimum requirements for licensure in s. 397.410. (b) An authorized agent of the department may, with the permission of the person in charge of the premises or pursuant to a warrant, enter and inspect any unlicensed service provider it reasonably suspects to be operating in violation of any provision of this chapter. (c) An application for licensure as a service provider under this chapter constitutes full permission for an authorized agent of the department to enter and inspect the premises of such service provider at any time. (2) The department shall accept, in lieu of its own inspections for licensure, the survey or inspection of an accrediting organization, if the provider is accredited according to the provisions of s. 394.741 and the department receives the report of the accrediting organization. (3) Notwithstanding the confidentiality provisions of this chapter, a designated and authorized agent of the department may access the records of the individuals served by licensed service providers, but only for purposes of licensing, monitoring, and investigation. The department may interview individuals, as specified by rule. (4) The authorized agents of the department may schedule periodic inspections of licensed service providers in order to minimize costs and the disruption of services; however, such authorized agents may inspect the facilities of any licensed service provider at any time. (5) In an effort to coordinate inspections among agencies, the department shall notify applicable state agencies of any scheduled licensure inspections of service providers jointly funded by the agencies. (6) The department shall maintain as public information, available to any person upon request and upon payment of a reasonable charge for copying, copies of licensure reports of licensed providers. (7) Violations of this part or applicable rules shall be classified according to the nature of the violation and the gravity of its probable effect on an individual receiving substance abuse treatment. Violations shall be classified on the written notice as follows: (a) Class “I” violations are those conditions or occurrences related to the operation and maintenance of a service component or to the treatment of an individual which the department determines present an imminent danger or a substantial probability that death or serious physical or emotional harm would result therefrom. The condition or practice constituting a class I violation shall be abated or eliminated within 24 hours, unless a fixed period, as determined by the department, is required for correction. The department shall impose an administrative fine as provided by law for a cited class I violation. A fine shall be levied notwithstanding the correction of the violation. (b) Class “II” violations are those conditions or occurrences related to the operation and maintenance of a service component or to the treatment of an individual which the department determines directly threaten the physical or emotional health, safety, or security of the individual, other than class I violations. The department shall impose an administrative fine as provided by law for a cited class II violation. A fine shall be levied notwithstanding the correction of the violation. (c) Class “III” violations are those conditions or occurrences related to the operation and maintenance of a service component or to the treatment of an individual which the department determines indirectly or potentially threaten the physical or emotional health, safety, or security of the individual, other than class I or class II violations. The department shall impose an administrative fine as provided in this section for a cited class III violation. A citation for a class III violation must specify the time within which the violation is required to be corrected. If a class III violation is corrected within the time specified, a fine may not be imposed. (d) Class “IV” violations are those conditions or occurrences related to the operation and maintenance of a service component or to required reports, forms, or documents that do not have the potential of negatively affecting an individual. These violations are of a type that the department determines do not threaten the health, safety, or security of an individual. The department shall impose an administrative fine as provided in this section for a cited class IV violation. A citation for a class IV violation must specify the time within which the violation is required to be corrected. If a class IV violation is corrected within the time specified, a fine may not be imposed. (8) The department shall establish a mechanism for the imposition and collection of fines for violations under this section no later than January 1, 2024.

F.S. 397.415 Denial, suspension, and revocation; other remedies.

(1) If the department determines that an applicant or licensed service provider or licensed service component thereof is not in compliance with all statutory and regulatory requirements, the department may deny, suspend, revoke, or impose reasonable restrictions or penalties on the license or any portion of the license. In such case: (a) The department may: 1. Impose an administrative fine for a violation that is designated as a class I, class II, class III, or class IV violation pursuant to s. 397.411. 2. Impose an administrative fine for a violation that is not designated as a class I, class II, class III, or class IV violation pursuant to s. 397.411. Unless otherwise specified by law, the amount of the fine may not exceed $500 for each violation. Unclassified violations may include: a. Violating any term or condition of a license. b. Violating any provision of this chapter or applicable rules. c. Providing services beyond the scope of the license. d. Violating a moratorium imposed pursuant to this section. 3. Establish criteria by rule for the amount or aggregate limitation of administrative fines applicable to this chapter and applicable rules, unless the amount or aggregate limitation of the fine is prescribed by statute. Each day of violation constitutes a separate violation and is subject to a separate fine. For fines imposed by final order of the department and not subject to further appeal, the violator shall pay the fine plus interest at the rate specified in s. 55.03 for each day beyond the date set by the department for payment of the fine. If a violator does not pay the fine plus any applicable interest within 60 days after the date set by the department, the department shall immediately suspend the violator’s license. (b) The department may require a corrective action plan approved by the department for any violation of this part or applicable rules. (c) The department may impose an immediate moratorium or emergency suspension as defined in s. 120.60 on admissions to any service component of a licensed service provider if the department determines that conditions present a threat to the health, safety, or welfare of an individual or the public. Notice of the moratorium or emergency suspension shall be posted and visible to the public at the location of the provider until the action is lifted. (d) The department may deny, suspend, or revoke the license of a service provider or may suspend or revoke the license as to the operation of any service component or location identified on the license for: 1. False representation of a material fact in the license application or omission of any material fact from the application. 2. An intentional or negligent act materially affecting the health or safety of an individual receiving services from the provider. 3. A violation of this chapter or applicable rules. 4. A demonstrated pattern of deficient performance. 5. Failure to immediately remove service provider personnel subject to background screening pursuant to s. 397.4073 who are arrested or found guilty of, regardless of adjudication, or have entered a plea of nolo contendere or guilty to any offense prohibited under the screening standard and notify the department within 2 days after such removal, excluding weekends and holidays. (2) If a provider’s license is revoked, the service provider is barred from submitting any application for licensure of the affected facility or service component to the department for a period of 1 year after the revocation. If the provider’s license is revoked as to any service component or location identified on the license, the provider is barred from applying for licensure of the affected service component or location for 1 year after the revocation. (3) Proceedings for the denial, suspension, or revocation of a service provider’s license must be conducted in accordance with chapter 120. (4) The department may maintain an action in court to enjoin the operation of any licensed or unlicensed provider, service component, or location in violation of this chapter or the rules adopted under this chapter.

F.S. 397.416 Substance abuse treatment services; qualified professional.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person who was certified through a certification process recognized by the former Department of Health and Rehabilitative Services before January 1, 1995, may perform the duties of a qualified professional with respect to substance abuse treatment services as defined in this chapter, and need not meet the certification requirements contained in s. 397.311(36).

F.S. 397.417 Peer specialists.

(1) LEGISLATIVE FINDINGS AND INTENT. — (a) The Legislature finds that: 1. The ability to provide adequate behavioral health services is limited by a shortage of professionals and paraprofessionals. 2. The state is experiencing an increase in opioid addictions, many of which prove fatal. 3. Peer specialists provide effective support services because they share common life experiences with the persons they assist. 4. Peer specialists promote a sense of community among those in recovery. 5. Research has shown that peer support facilitates recovery and reduces health care costs. 6. Persons who are otherwise qualified to serve as peer specialists may have a criminal history that prevents them from meeting background screening requirements. (b) The Legislature intends to expand the use of peer specialists as a cost-effective means of providing services. The Legislature also intends to ensure that peer specialists meet specified qualifications and modified background screening requirements and are adequately reimbursed for their services. (2) QUALIFICATIONS. — A person may seek certification as a peer specialist if he or she has been in recovery from a substance use disorder or mental illness for the past 2 years or if he or she is a family member or caregiver of a person with a substance use disorder or mental illness. (3) DUTIES OF THE DEPARTMENT. — (a) The department shall designate managing entities to either conduct peer specialist training or contract with a provider for peer specialist training. The training must be approved by a third-party credentialing entity approved by the department pursuant to paragraph (b). The managing entities must give preference to trainers who are certified peer specialists. (b) The department shall approve one or more third-party credentialing entities for the purposes of certifying peer specialists, approving training programs for individuals seeking certification as peer specialists, approving continuing education programs, and establishing the minimum requirements and standards that applicants must achieve to maintain certification. To obtain approval, the third-party credentialing entity must demonstrate compliance with nationally recognized standards for developing and administering professional certification programs to certify peer specialists. (c) The department must ensure that background screening required for achieving certification is conducted as provided in subsection (4). Such background screening may not be conducted by third-party credentialing entities. (d) The department shall require that a peer specialist providing recovery support services be certified; however, an individual who is not certified may provide recovery support services as a peer specialist for up to 1 year if he or she is working toward certification and is supervised by a qualified professional or by a certified peer specialist who has at least 2 years of full-time experience as a peer specialist at a licensed behavioral health organization. (4) BACKGROUND SCREENING. — (a) A peer specialist, or an individual who is working toward certification and providing recovery support services as provided in subsection (3), must have completed or have been lawfully released from confinement, supervision, or any nonmonetary condition imposed by the court for any felony and must undergo a background screening as a condition of initial and continued employment. The applicant must submit a full set of fingerprints to the department or to a vendor, an entity, or an agency that enters into an agreement with the Department of Law Enforcement as provided in s. 943.053(13). The department, vendor, entity, or agency shall forward the fingerprints to the Department of Law Enforcement for state processing, and the Department of Law Enforcement shall forward the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for national processing. The department shall screen the results to determine if a peer specialist meets certification requirements. The applicant is responsible for all fees charged in connection with state and federal fingerprint processing and retention. The state cost for fingerprint processing shall be as provided in s. 943.053(3)(e) for records provided to persons or entities other than those specified as exceptions therein. Fingerprints submitted to the Department of Law Enforcement pursuant to this paragraph shall be retained as provided in s. 435.12 and, when the Department of Law Enforcement begins participation in the program, enrolled in the Federal Bureau of Investigation’s national retained fingerprint arrest notification program as provided in s. 943.05(4). Any arrest record identified must be reported to the department. (b) The department or the Agency for Health Care Administration, as applicable, may contract with one or more vendors to perform all or part of the electronic fingerprinting pursuant to this section. Such contracts must ensure that the owners and personnel of the vendor performing the electronic fingerprinting are qualified and will ensure the integrity and security of all personal identifying information. (c) Vendors who submit fingerprints on behalf of employers must: 1. Meet the requirements of s. 943.053; and 2. Have the ability to communicate electronically with the state agency accepting screening results from the Department of Law Enforcement and provide the applicant’s full first name, middle initial, and last name; social security number or individual taxpayer identification number; date of birth; mailing address; sex; and race. (d) The background screening conducted under this subsection must ensure that a peer specialist has not, during the previous 3 years, been arrested for and is awaiting final disposition of, been found guilty of, regardless of adjudication, or entered a plea of nolo contendere or guilty to, or been adjudicated delinquent and the record has not been sealed or expunged for, any felony. (e) The background screening conducted under this subsection must ensure that a peer specialist has not been arrested for and is awaiting final disposition of, found guilty of, regardless of adjudication, or entered a plea of nolo contendere or guilty to, or been adjudicated delinquent and the record has not been sealed or expunged for, any offense prohibited under any of the following state laws or similar laws of another jurisdiction: 1. Section 393.135, relating to sexual misconduct with certain developmentally disabled clients and reporting of such sexual misconduct. 2. Section 394.4593, relating to sexual misconduct with certain mental health patients and reporting of such sexual misconduct. 3. Section 409.920, relating to Medicaid provider fraud, if the offense was a felony of the first or second degree. 4. Section 415.111, relating to abuse, neglect, or exploitation of vulnerable adults. 5. Any offense that constitutes domestic violence as defined in s. 741.28. 6. Section 777.04, relating to attempts, solicitation, and conspiracy to commit an offense listed in this paragraph. 7. Section 782.04, relating to murder. 8. Section 782.07, relating to manslaughter; aggravated manslaughter of an elderly person or a disabled adult; aggravated manslaughter of a child; or aggravated manslaughter of an officer, a firefighter, an emergency medical technician, or a paramedic. 9. Section 782.071, relating to vehicular homicide. 10. Section 782.09, relating to killing an unborn child by injury to the mother. 11. Chapter 784, relating to assault, battery, and culpable negligence, if the offense was a felony. 12. Section 787.01, relating to kidnapping. 13. Section 787.02, relating to false imprisonment. 14. Section 787.025, relating to luring or enticing a child. 15. Section 787.04(2), relating to leading, taking, enticing, or removing a minor beyond state limits, or concealing the location of a minor, with criminal intent pending custody proceedings. 16. Section 787.04(3), relating to leading, taking, enticing, or removing a minor beyond state limits, or concealing the location of a minor, with criminal intent pending dependency proceedings or proceedings concerning alleged abuse or neglect of a minor. 17. Section 790.115(1), relating to exhibiting firearms or weapons within 1,000 feet of a school. 18. Section 790.115(2)(b), relating to possessing an electric weapon or device, a destructive device, or any other weapon on school property. 19. Section 794.011, relating to sexual battery. 20. Former s. 794.041, relating to prohibited acts of persons in familial or custodial authority. 21. Section 794.05, relating to unlawful sexual activity with certain minors. 22. Section 794.08, relating to female genital mutilation. 23. Section 796.07, relating to procuring another to commit prostitution, except for those offenses expunged pursuant to s. 943.0583. 24. Section 798.02, relating to lewd and lascivious behavior. 25. Chapter 800, relating to lewdness and indecent exposure. 26. Section 806.01, relating to arson. 27. Section 810.02, relating to burglary, if the offense was a felony of the first degree. 28. Section 810.14, relating to voyeurism, if the offense was a felony. 29. Section 810.145, relating to digital voyeurism, if the offense was a felony. 30. Section 812.13, relating to robbery. 31. Section 812.131, relating to robbery by sudden snatching. 32. Section 812.133, relating to carjacking. 33. Section 812.135, relating to home-invasion robbery. 34. Section 817.034, relating to communications fraud, if the offense was a felony of the first degree. 35. Section 817.234, relating to false and fraudulent insurance claims, if the offense was a felony of the first or second degree. 36. Section 817.50, relating to fraudulently obtaining goods or services from a health care provider and false reports of a communicable disease. 37. Section 817.505, relating to patient brokering. 38. Section 817.568, relating to fraudulent use of personal identification, if the offense was a felony of the first or second degree. 39. Section 825.102, relating to abuse, aggravated abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a disabled adult. 40. Section 825.1025, relating to lewd or lascivious offenses committed upon or in the presence of an elderly person or a disabled person. 41. Section 825.103, relating to exploitation of an elderly person or a disabled adult, if the offense was a felony. 42. Section 826.04, relating to incest. 43. Section 827.03, relating to child abuse, aggravated child abuse, or neglect of a child. 44. Section 827.04, relating to contributing to the delinquency or dependency of a child. 45. Former s. 827.05, relating to negligent treatment of children. 46. Section 827.071, relating to sexual performance by a child. 47. Section 831.30, relating to fraud in obtaining medicinal drugs. 48. Section 831.31, relating to the sale; manufacture; delivery; or possession with intent to sell, manufacture, or deliver of any counterfeit controlled substance, if the offense was a felony. 49. Section 843.01, relating to resisting arrest with violence. 50. Section 843.025, relating to depriving a law enforcement, correctional, or correctional probation officer of the means of protection or communication. 51. Section 843.12, relating to aiding in an escape. 52. Section 843.13, relating to aiding in the escape of juvenile inmates of correctional institutions. 53. Chapter 847, relating to obscenity. 54. Section 874.05, relating to encouraging or recruiting another to join a criminal gang. 55. Chapter 893, relating to drug abuse prevention and control, if the offense was a felony of the second degree or greater severity. 56. Section 895.03, relating to racketeering and collection of unlawful debts. 57. Section 896.101, relating to the Florida Money Laundering Act. 58. Section 916.1075, relating to sexual misconduct with certain forensic clients and reporting of such sexual misconduct. 59. Section 944.35(3), relating to inflicting cruel or inhuman treatment on an inmate resulting in great bodily harm. 60. Section 944.40, relating to escape. 61. Section 944.46, relating to harboring, concealing, or aiding an escaped prisoner. 62. Section 944.47, relating to introduction of contraband into a correctional institution. 63. Section 985.701, relating to sexual misconduct in juvenile justice programs. 64. Section 985.711, relating to introduction of contraband into a detention facility. (5) EXEMPTION REQUESTS. — A person who wishes to become a peer specialist and is disqualified under subsection (4) may request an exemption from disqualification pursuant to s. 435.07 from the department or the Agency for Health Care Administration, as applicable. (6) GRANDFATHER CLAUSE. — A peer specialist certified as of July 1, 2022, is deemed to satisfy the requirements of this section; however, such peer specialists must comply with the minimum standards and requirements needed to maintain certification established pursuant to subsection (3).

F.S. 397.427 Medication-assisted treatment service providers; rehabilitation program; needs assessment and provision of services; persons authorized to issue takeout medication; unlawful operation; penalty.

(1) Providers of medication-assisted treatment services for opiate addiction may not be licensed unless they provide supportive rehabilitation programs. Supportive rehabilitation programs include, but are not limited to, counseling, therapy, and vocational rehabilitation. (2) A service provider operating in violation of this section is subject to proceedings in accordance with this chapter to enjoin that unlawful operation. (3) Notwithstanding s. 465.019(2), a physician assistant, a registered nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse working for a licensed service provider may deliver takeout medication for opiate treatment to persons enrolled in a maintenance treatment program for medication-assisted treatment for opiate addiction if: (a) The medication-assisted treatment program for opiate addiction has an appropriate valid permit issued pursuant to rules adopted by the Board of Pharmacy; (b) The medication for treatment of opiate addiction has been delivered pursuant to a valid prescription written by the program’s physician licensed pursuant to chapter 458 or chapter 459; (c) The medication for treatment of opiate addiction which is ordered appears on a formulary and is prepackaged and prelabeled with dosage instructions and distributed from a source authorized under chapter 499; (d) Each licensed provider adopts written protocols which provide for supervision of the physician assistant, registered nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse by a physician licensed pursuant to chapter 458 or chapter 459 and for the procedures by which patients’ medications may be delivered by the physician assistant, registered nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse. Such protocols shall be signed by the supervising physician and either the administering registered nurse, the advanced practice registered nurse, or the licensed practical nurse. (e) Each licensed service provider maintains and has available for inspection by representatives of the Board of Pharmacy all medical records and patient care protocols, including records of medications delivered to patients, in accordance with the board. (4) Service providers within the publicly funded system shall be funded for provision of these services based on the availability of funds. (5) Service providers that provide medication-assisted treatment for substance abuse other than opiate dependence shall provide counseling services in conjunction with medication-assisted treatment. (6) A physician assistant, a registered nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse working for a licensed service provider may deliver medication as prescribed by rule if: (a) The service provider is authorized to provide medication-assisted treatment; (b) The medication has been administered pursuant to a valid prescription written by the program’s physician who is licensed under chapter 458 or chapter 459; and (c) The medication ordered appears on a formulary or meets federal requirements for medication-assisted treatment. (7) Each licensed service provider that provides medication-assisted treatment must adopt written protocols as specified by the department and in accordance with federally required rules, regulations, or procedures. The protocol shall provide for the supervision of the physician assistant, registered nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse working under the supervision of a physician who is licensed under chapter 458 or chapter 459. The protocol must specify how the medication will be used in conjunction with counseling or psychosocial treatment and that the services provided will be included on the treatment plan. The protocol must specify the procedures by which medication-assisted treatment may be administered by the physician assistant, registered nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse. These protocols shall be signed by the supervising physician and the administering physician assistant, registered nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse. (8) Each licensed service provider shall maintain and have available for inspection by representatives of the Board of Pharmacy all medical records and protocols, including records of medications delivered to individuals in accordance with rules of the board.

F.S. 397.431 Individual responsibility for cost of substance abuse impairment services.

(1) Before accepting an individual for admission and in accordance with confidentiality guidelines, both the full charge for services and the fee charged to the individual for such services under the provider’s fee system or payment policy must be disclosed to each individual or his or her authorized personal representative, or parent or legal guardian if the individual is a minor who did not seek treatment voluntarily and without parental consent. (2) An individual or his or her authorized personal representative, or parent or legal guardian if the individual is a minor, is required to contribute toward the cost of substance abuse services in accordance with his or her ability to pay, unless otherwise provided by law. (3) The parent, legal guardian, or legal custodian of a minor is not liable for payment for any substance abuse services provided to the minor without parental consent pursuant to s. 397.601(4), unless the parent, legal guardian, or legal custodian participates or is ordered to participate in the services, and only for the substance abuse services rendered. If the minor is receiving services as a juvenile offender, the obligation to pay is governed by the law relating to juvenile offenders. (4) Service providers that do not contract for state funds to provide substance abuse services as defined in this chapter may establish their own admission policies regarding provisions for payment for services. Such policies must comply with other statutory and regulatory requirements governing state or federal reimbursements to a provider for services delivered to individuals. As used in this subsection, the term “contract for state funds” does not include Medicaid funds. (5) Service providers that contract for state funds to provide substance abuse services as defined in this chapter must establish a fee system based upon an individual’s ability to pay and, if space and sufficient state resources are available, may not deny an individual access to services solely on the basis of the individual’s inability to pay.

F.S. 397.481 Applicability of Community Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Services Act.

All service providers as defined in and governed by this chapter are also subject to part IV of chapter 394, the Community Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Services Act.

F.S. 397.482 Lawyer assistance programs; civil immunity.

A person who in good faith reports information or takes action in connection with a lawyer assistance program or a person who receives information in connection with a lawyer assistance program is immune from civil liability for reporting the information, taking the action, or taking no action, provided that such person has acted in good faith and without malice.

F.S. 397.483 Lawyer assistance programs; presumption of good faith.

A member of a lawyer assistance program or a person reporting information to a lawyer assistance program is presumed to have acted in good faith and without malice. A person alleging lack of good faith has the burden of proving bad faith and malice.

F.S. 397.484 Lawyer assistance programs; persons entitled to immunity.

The civil immunity provided for in this act shall be liberally construed to accomplish the purposes of this act. The persons entitled to immunity under this act include: (1) Florida Lawyers Assistance, Inc., and other lawyer assistance programs approved by the Florida Supreme Court or The Florida Bar which provide assistance to attorneys who may be impaired because of abuse of alcohol or other drugs or because of any other physical or mental infirmity causing impairment. (2) A member, employee, or agent of the program, association, or nonprofit corporation. (3) A person who reports or provides information to the program concerning an impaired legal professional, including, but not limited to, a person designated to monitor or supervise the course of treatment or rehabilitation of an impaired professional.

F.S. 397.485 Lawyer assistance programs; information subject to privilege.

All privileged information, whether attorney-client, work product, or otherwise, in any form, furnished to the lawyer assistance program shall remain privileged.

F.S. 397.486 Lawyer assistance programs; confidentiality of records, proceedings, and communications.

The records, proceedings, and all communications by and between an individual seeking assistance and the lawyer assistance program shall be deemed confidential and shall not be subject to disclosure or available for court subpoena. This section does not prevent the subpoena of business records that are otherwise available through subpoena, nor does this section preclude release or disclosure of information or communications by the lawyer assistance program when such disclosure is mandated or required as a condition or precondition for entry in the program. Such records are not to be construed as privileged merely because they have been maintained by a lawyer assistance program.

F.S. 397.487 Voluntary certification of recovery residences.

(1) The Legislature finds that a person suffering from addiction has a higher success rate of achieving long-lasting sobriety when given the opportunity to build a stronger foundation by living in a recovery residence while receiving treatment or after completing treatment. The Legislature further finds that this state and its subdivisions have a legitimate state interest in protecting these persons, who represent a vulnerable consumer population in need of adequate housing. It is the intent of the Legislature to protect persons who reside in a recovery residence. (2) The department shall approve at least one credentialing entity by December 1, 2015, for the purpose of developing and administering a voluntary certification program for recovery residences. The approved credentialing entity shall: (a) Establish recovery residence certification requirements. (b) Establish procedures to: 1. Administer the application, certification, recertification, and disciplinary processes. 2. Monitor and inspect a recovery residence and its staff to ensure compliance with certification requirements. 3. Interview and evaluate residents, employees, and volunteer staff on their knowledge and application of certification requirements. (c) Provide training for owners, managers, and staff. (d) Develop a code of ethics. (e) Establish application, inspection, and annual certification renewal fees. The application fee may not exceed $100. Any onsite inspection fee shall reflect actual costs for inspections. The annual certification renewal fee may not exceed $100. (3) A credentialing entity shall require the recovery residence to submit the following documents with the completed application and fee: (a) A policy and procedures manual containing: 1. Job descriptions for all staff positions. 2. Drug-testing procedures and requirements. 3. A prohibition on the premises against alcohol, marijuana, illegal drugs, and the use of prescribed medications by an individual other than the individual for whom the medication is prescribed. For the purposes of this subsection, “marijuana” includes marijuana that has been certified by a qualified physician for medical use in accordance with s. 381.986. 4. Policies to support a resident’s recovery efforts. 5. A good neighbor policy to address neighborhood concerns and complaints. (b) Rules for residents. (c) Copies of all forms provided to residents. (d) Intake procedures. (e) Sexual predator and sexual offender registry compliance policy. (f) Relapse policy. (g) Fee schedule. (h) Refund policy. (i) Eviction procedures and policy. (j) Code of ethics. (k) Proof of insurance. (l) Proof of background screening. (m) Proof of satisfactory fire, safety, and health inspections. (4) A certified recovery residence must be actively managed by a certified recovery residence administrator. All applications for certification must include the name of the certified recovery residence administrator who will be actively managing the applicant recovery residence. (5) Upon receiving a complete application, a credentialing entity shall conduct an onsite inspection of the recovery residence. (6) All owners, directors, and chief financial officers of an applicant recovery residence are subject to level 2 background screening as provided under s. 408.809 and chapter 435. A recovery residence is ineligible for certification, and a credentialing entity shall deny a recovery residence’s application, if any owner, director, or chief financial officer has been found guilty of, or has entered a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, regardless of adjudication, any offense listed in s. 408.809(4) or s. 435.04(2) unless the department has issued an exemption under s. 435.07. Exemptions from disqualification applicable to service provider personnel pursuant to s. 397.4073 or s. 435.07 shall apply to this subsection. In accordance with s. 435.04, the department shall notify the credentialing agency of an owner’s, director’s, or chief financial officer’s eligibility based on the results of his or her background screening. (7) A credentialing entity shall issue a certificate of compliance upon approval of the recovery residence’s application and inspection. The certification shall automatically terminate 1 year after issuance if not renewed. (8) Onsite followup monitoring of a certified recovery residence may be conducted by the credentialing entity to determine continuing compliance with certification requirements. The credentialing entity shall inspect each certified recovery residence at least annually to ensure compliance. (a) A credentialing entity may suspend or revoke a certification if the recovery residence is not in compliance with any provision of this section or has failed to remedy any deficiency identified by the credentialing entity within the time period specified. (b) A certified recovery residence must notify the credentialing entity within 3 business days after the removal of the recovery residence’s certified recovery residence administrator due to termination, resignation, or any other reason. The certified recovery residence has 90 days to retain a certified recovery residence administrator. The credentialing entity must revoke the certificate of compliance of any certified recovery residence that fails to comply with this paragraph. (c) If a certified recovery residence’s administrator has been removed due to termination, resignation, or any other reason and had been previously approved to actively manage more than 50 residents pursuant to s. 397.4871(8)(b), the certified recovery residence has 90 days to retain another certified recovery residence administrator pursuant to s. 397.4871. The credentialing entity must revoke the certificate of compliance of any certified recovery residence that fails to comply with this paragraph. (d) If any owner, director, or chief financial officer of a certified recovery residence is arrested and awaiting disposition for or found guilty of, or enters a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, regardless of whether adjudication is withheld, any offense listed in s. 435.04(2) while acting in that capacity, the certified recovery residence must immediately remove the person from that position and notify the credentialing entity within 3 business days after such removal. The credentialing entity must revoke the certificate of compliance of a certified recovery residence that fails to meet these requirements. (e) A credentialing entity shall revoke a certified recovery residence’s certificate of compliance if the certified recovery residence provides false or misleading information to the credentialing entity at any time. (f) Any decision by a department-recognized credentialing entity to deny, revoke, or suspend a certification, or otherwise impose sanctions on a certified recovery residence, is reviewable by the department. Upon receiving an adverse determination, the certified recovery residence may request an administrative hearing pursuant to ss. 120.569 and 120.57(1) within 30 days after completing any appeals process offered by the credentialing entity or the department, as applicable. (9) A person may not advertise to the public, in any way or by any medium whatsoever, any recovery residence as a “certified recovery residence” unless such recovery residence has first secured a certificate of compliance under this section. A person who violates this subsection commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083. (10)(a) A certified recovery residence may allow a minor child to visit a parent who is a resident of the recovery residence, provided that a minor child may not visit or remain in the recovery residence between the hours of 9 p.m. and 7 a.m. unless: 1. A court makes a specific finding that such visitation is in the best interest of the minor child; or 2. The recovery residence is a specialized residence for pregnant women or parents whose children reside with them. Such recovery residences may allow children to visit or reside in the residence if the parent does not yet have a time-sharing plan pursuant to s. 61.13, provided that the parent files with the court for establishment of a plan within 14 days of moving into the residence. (b) A certified recovery residence may not allow a minor child to visit a parent who is a resident of the recovery residence at any time if any resident of the recovery residence is currently required to register as a sexual predator under s. 775.21 or as a sexual offender under s. 943.0435. (11) Notwithstanding any landlord and tenant rights and obligations under chapter 83, a recovery residence that is certified under this section and has a discharge policy approved by a department-recognized credentialing entity may immediately discharge or transfer a resident in accordance with that policy under any of the following circumstances: (a) The discharge or transfer is necessary for the resident’s welfare. (b) The resident’s needs cannot be met at the recovery residence. (c) The health and safety of other residents or recovery residence employees is at risk or would be at risk if the resident continues to live at the recovery residence. (12) Any person discharged from a recovery residence under subsection (11) who willfully refuses to depart after being warned by the owner or an authorized employee of the recovery residence commits the offense of trespass in a recovery residence, a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083. (13) Beginning January 1, 2025, a certified recovery residence may not deny an individual access to housing solely on the basis that he or she has been prescribed federally approved medication that assists with treatment for substance use disorders by a licensed physician, a physician’s assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse registered under s. 464.0123. (14) A local ordinance or regulation may not further regulate the duration or frequency of a resident’s stay in a certified recovery residence located within a multifamily zoning district after June 30, 2024. This provision shall expire July 1, 2026. (15)(a) By January 1, 2026, the governing body of each county or municipality shall adopt an ordinance establishing procedures for the review and approval of certified recovery residences within its jurisdiction. The ordinance must include a process for requesting reasonable accommodations from any local land use regulation that serves to prohibit the establishment of a certified recovery residence. (b) At a minimum, the ordinance must: 1. Be consistent with the Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988, 42 U.S.C. ss. 3601 et seq., and Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 U.S.C. ss. 12131 et seq. 2. Establish a written application process for requesting a reasonable accommodation for the establishment of a certified recovery residence, which application must be submitted to the appropriate local government office. 3. Require the local government to date stamp each application upon receipt. If additional information is required, the local government must notify the applicant in writing within the first 30 days after receipt of the application and allow the applicant at least 30 days to respond. 4. Require the local government to issue a final written determination on the application within 60 days after receipt of a completed application. The determination must: a. Approve the request in whole or in part, with or without conditions; or b. Deny the request, stating with specificity the objective, evidence-based reasons for denial and identifying any deficiencies or actions necessary for reconsideration. 5. Provide that if a final written determination is not issued within 60 days after receipt of a completed application, the request is deemed approved unless the parties agree in writing to a reasonable extension of time. 6. Require that the application include, at a minimum: a. The name and contact information of the applicant or the applicant’s authorized representative; b. The property address and parcel identification number; and c. A description of the accommodation requested and the specific regulation or policy from which relief is sought. (c) The ordinance may establish additional requirements for the review or approval of reasonable accommodation requests for establishing a certified recovery residence, provided such requirements are consistent with federal law and do not conflict with this subsection. (d) The ordinance may not require public hearings beyond the minimum required by law to grant the requested accommodation. (e) The ordinance may include provisions for the revocation of a granted accommodation of a certified recovery residence for cause, including, but not limited to, a violation of the conditions of approval or the lapse, revocation, or failure to maintain certification or licensure required under this section, if not reinstated within 180 days. (f) The ordinance and establishment of a reasonable accommodation process does not relieve the local government from its obligations under the Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988, 42 U.S.C. ss. 3601 et seq., and Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 U.S.C. ss. 12131 et seq. The regulation for which the applicant is seeking a reasonable accommodation must not facially discriminate against or otherwise disparately impact the applicant. (16) The application of this section does not supersede any current or future declaration or declaration of condominium adopted pursuant to chapter 718; any cooperative document adopted pursuant to chapter 719; or any declaration or declaration of covenant adopted pursuant to chapter 720.

F.S. 397.501 Rights of individuals.

Individuals receiving substance abuse services from any service provider are guaranteed protection of the rights specified in this section, unless otherwise expressly provided, and service providers must ensure the protection of such rights. (1) RIGHT TO INDIVIDUAL DIGNITY. — The dignity of the individual served must be respected at all times and upon all occasions, including any occasion when the individual is admitted, retained, or transported. Individuals served who are not accused of a crime or delinquent act may not be detained or incarcerated in jails, detention centers, or training schools of the state, except for purposes of protective custody in strict accordance with this chapter. An individual may not be deprived of any constitutional right. (2) RIGHT TO NONDISCRIMINATORY SERVICES. — (a) Service providers may not deny an individual access to substance abuse services solely on the basis of race, gender, ethnicity, age, sexual preference, human immunodeficiency virus status, prior service departures against medical advice, disability, or number of relapse episodes. Service providers may not deny an individual who takes medication prescribed by a physician or an advanced practice registered nurse registered under s. 464.0123 access to substance abuse services solely on that basis. Service providers who receive state funds to provide substance abuse services may not, if space and sufficient state resources are available, deny access to services based solely on inability to pay. (b) Each individual in treatment must be afforded the opportunity to participate in the formulation and periodic review of his or her individualized treatment or service plan to the extent of his or her ability to so participate. (c) It is the policy of the state to use the least restrictive and most appropriate services available, based on the needs and the best interests of the individual and consistent with optimum care of the individual. (d) Each individual must be afforded the opportunity to participate in activities designed to enhance self-image. (3) RIGHT TO QUALITY SERVICES. — (a) Each individual must be delivered services suited to his or her needs, administered skillfully, safely, humanely, with full respect for his or her dignity and personal integrity, and in accordance with all statutory and regulatory requirements. (b) These services must include the use of methods and techniques to control aggressive behavior that poses an immediate threat to the individual or to other persons. Such methods and techniques include the use of restraints, the use of seclusion, the use of time-out, and other behavior management techniques. When authorized, these methods and techniques may be applied only by persons who are employed by service providers and trained in the application and use of these methods and techniques. The department must specify by rule the methods that may be used and the techniques that may be applied by service providers to control aggressive behavior and must specify by rule the physical facility requirements for seclusion rooms, including dimensions, safety features, methods of observation, and contents. (4) RIGHT TO COMMUNICATION. — (a) Each individual has the right to communicate freely and privately with other persons within the limitations imposed by service provider policy. (b) Because the delivery of services can only be effective in a substance abuse free environment, close supervision of each individual’s communications and correspondence is necessary, particularly in the initial stages of treatment, and the service provider must therefore set reasonable rules for telephone, mail, and visitation rights, giving primary consideration to the well-being and safety of individuals, staff, and the community. It is the duty of the service provider to inform the individual and his or her family if the family is involved at the time of admission about the provider’s rules relating to communications and correspondence. (5) RIGHT TO CARE AND CUSTODY OF PERSONAL EFFECTS. — An individual has the right to possess clothing and other personal effects. The service provider may take temporary custody of the individual’s personal effects only when required for medical or safety reasons, with the reason for taking custody and a list of the personal effects recorded in the individual’s clinical record. A service provider shall return an individual’s personal effects upon the individual’s discharge, even if the discharge is against medical advice. (6) RIGHT TO EDUCATION OF MINORS. — Each minor in a residential service component is guaranteed education and training appropriate to his or her needs. The service provider shall coordinate with local education agencies to ensure that education and training is provided to each minor in accordance with other applicable laws and regulations and that parental responsibilities related to such education and training are established within the provisions of such applicable laws and regulations. This chapter does not relieve any local education authority of its obligation under law to provide a free and appropriate education to every child. (7) RIGHT TO CONFIDENTIALITY OF INDIVIDUAL RECORDS. — (a) The records of service providers which pertain to the identity, diagnosis, and prognosis of and service provision to any individual are confidential in accordance with this chapter and with applicable federal confidentiality regulations and are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. Such records may not be disclosed without the written consent of the individual to whom they pertain except that appropriate disclosure may be made without such consent: 1. To medical personnel in a medical emergency. 2. To service provider personnel if such personnel need to know the information in order to carry out duties relating to the provision of services to an individual. 3. To the secretary of the department or the secretary’s designee, for purposes of scientific research, in accordance with federal confidentiality regulations, but only upon agreement in writing that the individual’s name and other identifying information will not be disclosed. 4. In the course of review of service provider records by persons who are performing an audit or evaluation on behalf of any federal, state, or local government agency, or third-party payor providing financial assistance or reimbursement to the service provider; however, reports produced as a result of such audit or evaluation may not disclose names or other identifying information and must be in accordance with federal confidentiality regulations. 5. Upon court order based on application showing good cause for disclosure. In determining whether there is good cause for disclosure, the court shall examine whether the public interest and the need for disclosure outweigh the potential injury to the individual, to the service provider and the individual, and to the service provider itself. (b) The restrictions on disclosure and use in this section do not apply to communications from provider personnel to law enforcement officers which: 1. Are directly related to an individual’s commission of a crime on the premises of the provider or against provider personnel or to a threat to commit such a crime; and 2. Are limited to the circumstances of the incident, including the status of the individual committing or threatening to commit the crime, that individual’s name and address, and that individual’s last known whereabouts. (c) The restrictions on disclosure and use in this section do not apply to the reporting of incidents of suspected child abuse and neglect to the appropriate state or local authorities as required by law. However, such restrictions continue to apply to the original substance abuse records maintained by the provider, including their disclosure and use for civil or criminal proceedings which may arise out of the report of suspected child abuse and neglect. (d) Any answer to a request for a disclosure of individual records which is not permissible under this section or under the appropriate federal regulations must be made in a way that will not affirmatively reveal that an identified individual has been, or is being diagnosed or treated for substance abuse. The regulations do not restrict a disclosure that an identified individual is not and has never received services. (e)1. Since a minor acting alone has the legal capacity to voluntarily apply for and obtain substance abuse treatment, any written consent for disclosure may be given only by the minor. This restriction includes, but is not limited to, any disclosure of identifying information to the parent, legal guardian, or custodian of a minor for the purpose of obtaining financial reimbursement. 2. When the consent of a parent, legal guardian, or custodian is required under this chapter in order for a minor to obtain substance abuse treatment, any written consent for disclosure must be given by both the minor and the parent, legal guardian, or custodian. (f) An order of a court of competent jurisdiction authorizing disclosure and use of confidential information is a unique kind of court order. Its only purpose is to authorize a disclosure or use of identifying information which would otherwise be prohibited by this section. Such an order does not compel disclosure. A subpoena or a similar legal mandate must be issued in order to compel disclosure. This mandate may be entered at the same time as, and accompany, an authorizing court order entered under this section. (g) An order authorizing the disclosure of an individual’s records may be applied for by any person having a legally recognized interest in the disclosure which is sought. The application may be filed alone or as part of a pending civil action or an active criminal investigation in which it appears that the individual’s records are needed to provide evidence. An application must use a fictitious name, such as John Doe or Jane Doe, to refer to any individual and may not contain or otherwise disclose any identifying information unless the individual is the applicant or has given a written consent to disclosure or the court has ordered the record of the proceeding sealed from public scrutiny. (h)1. For applications filed alone or as part of a pending civil action, the individual and the person holding the records from whom disclosure is sought must be given adequate notice in a manner which will not disclose identifying information to other persons, and an opportunity to file a written response to the application, or to appear in person, for the limited purpose of providing evidence on the statutory and regulatory criteria for the issuance of the court order. 2. Applications filed as part of an active criminal investigation may, in the discretion of the court, be granted without notice. Although no express notice is required to the agents, owners, and employees of the treatment provider or to any individual whose records are to be disclosed, upon implementation of an order so granted, any of these persons must be afforded an opportunity to seek revocation or amendment of the order, limited to the presentation of evidence on the statutory and regulatory criteria for the issuance of the order. (i) Any oral argument, review of evidence, or hearing on the application must be held in the judge’s chambers or in some manner which ensures that identifying information is not disclosed to anyone other than a party to the proceeding, the individual, or the person holding the record, unless the individual requests an open hearing. The proceeding may include an examination by the judge of the records referred to in the application. (j) A court may authorize the disclosure and use of records for the purpose of conducting a criminal investigation or prosecution of an individual only if the court finds that all of the following criteria are met: 1. The crime involved is extremely serious, such as one which causes or directly threatens loss of life or serious bodily injury, including but not limited to homicide, sexual assault, sexual battery, kidnapping, armed robbery, assault with a deadly weapon, and child abuse and neglect. 2. There is reasonable likelihood that the records will disclose information of substantial value in the investigation or prosecution. 3. Other ways of obtaining the information are not available or would not be effective. 4. The potential injury to the individual, to the physician-individual relationship, and to the ability of the program to provide services to other individuals is outweighed by the public interest and the need for the disclosure. (8) RIGHT TO COUNSEL. — Each individual must be informed that he or she has the right to be represented by counsel in any judicial proceeding for involuntary treatment services and that he or she, or if the individual is a minor his or her parent, legal guardian, or legal custodian, may apply immediately to the court to have an attorney appointed if he or she cannot afford one. (9) RIGHT TO HABEAS CORPUS. — At any time, and without notice, an individual involuntarily retained by a provider, or the individual’s parent, guardian, custodian, or attorney on behalf of the individual, may petition for a writ of habeas corpus to question the cause and legality of such retention and request that the court issue a writ for the individual’s release. (10) LIABILITY AND IMMUNITY. — (a) Service provider personnel who violate or abuse any right or privilege of an individual under this chapter are liable for damages as determined by law. (b) All persons acting in good faith, reasonably, and without negligence in connection with the preparation or execution of petitions, applications, certificates, or other documents or the apprehension, detention, discharge, examination, transportation, or treatment of a person under the provisions of this chapter shall be free from all liability, civil or criminal, by reason of such acts.

F.S. 397.581 Unlawful activities relating to assessment and treatment; penalties.

(1) A person may not knowingly and willfully: (a) Furnish false information for the purpose of obtaining emergency or other involuntary admission of another person. (b) Cause or otherwise secure, or conspire with or assist another to cause or secure, any emergency or other involuntary procedure of another person under false pretenses. (c) Cause, or conspire with or assist another to cause, without lawful justification, the denial to any person of any right accorded pursuant to this chapter. (2) A person who violates subsection (1) commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 and by a fine not exceeding $5,000.

F.S. 397.601 Voluntary admissions.

(1) A person who wishes to enter treatment for substance abuse may apply to a service provider for voluntary admission. (2) Within the financial and space capabilities of the service provider, a person must be admitted to treatment when sufficient evidence exists that the person is impaired by substance abuse and the medical and behavioral conditions of the person are not beyond the safe management capabilities of the service provider. (3) The service provider must emphasize admission to the service component that represents the least restrictive setting that is appropriate to the person’s treatment needs. (4)(a) The disability of minority for persons under 18 years of age is removed solely for the purpose of obtaining voluntary substance abuse impairment services from a licensed service provider, and consent to such services by a minor has the same force and effect as if executed by an individual who has reached the age of majority. Such consent is not subject to later disaffirmance based on minority. (b) Except for purposes of law enforcement activities in connection with protective custody, the disability of minority is not removed if there is an involuntary admission for substance abuse services, in which case parental participation may be required as the court finds appropriate. (5) A service provider must document that, within 24 hours of admission, individuals admitted on a voluntary basis have been provided with the option to authorize the release of information from their clinical record to the individual’s health care surrogate or proxy, attorney, representative, or other known emergency contact.

F.S. 397.675 Criteria for involuntary admissions, including protective custody, emergency admission, and other involuntary assessment, involuntary treatment, and alternative involuntary assessment for minors, for purposes of assessment and stabilization, and for involuntary treatment.

A person meets the criteria for involuntary admission if there is good faith reason to believe that the person is substance abuse impaired or has a substance use disorder and a co-occurring mental health disorder and, because of such impairment or disorder: (1) Has lost the power of self-control with respect to substance abuse; and (2)(a) Is in need of substance abuse services and, by reason of substance abuse impairment, his or her judgment has been so impaired that he or she is incapable of appreciating his or her need for such services and of making a rational decision in that regard, although mere refusal to receive such services does not constitute evidence of lack of judgment with respect to his or her need for such services; or (b) Without care or treatment, is likely to suffer from neglect or refuse to care for himself or herself; that such neglect or refusal poses a real and present threat of substantial harm to his or her well-being; and that it is not apparent that such harm may be avoided through the help of willing, able, and responsible family members or friends or the provision of other services, or there is substantial likelihood that the person has inflicted, or threatened to or attempted to inflict, or, unless admitted, is likely to inflict, physical harm on himself, herself, or another.

F.S. 397.677 Protective custody; circumstances justifying.

A law enforcement officer may implement protective custody measures as specified in this part when a minor or an adult who appears to meet the involuntary admission criteria in s. 397.675 is: (1) Brought to the attention of law enforcement; or (2) In a public place.

F.S. 397.679 Emergency admission; circumstances justifying.

A person who meets the criteria for involuntary admission in s. 397.675 may be admitted to a hospital or to a licensed detoxification facility or addictions receiving facility for emergency assessment and stabilization, or to a less intensive component of a licensed service provider for assessment only, upon receipt by the facility of a certificate by a physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, a psychiatric nurse, a clinical psychologist, a clinical social worker, a marriage and family therapist, a mental health counselor, a physician assistant working under the scope of practice of the supervising physician, or a master’s-level-certified addictions professional for substance abuse services, if the certificate is specific to substance abuse impairment, and the completion of an application for emergency admission.

F.S. 397.681 Involuntary petitions; general provisions; court jurisdiction and right to counsel.

(1) JURISDICTION. — The courts have jurisdiction of involuntary treatment petitions for substance abuse impaired persons, and such petitions must be filed with the clerk of the court in the county where the person is located. The clerk of the court may not charge a fee for the filing of a petition under this section. The chief judge may appoint a general or special magistrate to preside over all or part of the proceedings. The alleged impaired person is named as the respondent. (2) RIGHT TO COUNSEL. — A respondent has the right to counsel at every stage of a judicial proceeding relating to a petition for his or her involuntary treatment for substance abuse impairment; however, the respondent may waive that right if the respondent is present and the court finds that such waiver is made knowingly, intelligently, and voluntarily. A respondent who desires counsel and is unable to afford private counsel has the right to court-appointed counsel and to the benefits of s. 57.081. If the court believes that the respondent needs or desires the assistance of counsel, the court shall appoint such counsel for the respondent without regard to the respondent’s wishes. If the respondent is a minor not otherwise represented in the proceeding, the court shall immediately appoint a guardian ad litem to act on the minor’s behalf.

F.S. 397.697 Court determination; effect of court order for involuntary services.

(1)(a) When the court finds that the conditions for involuntary treatment services have been proved by clear and convincing evidence, it may order the respondent to receive involuntary treatment services from a publicly funded licensed service provider for a period not to exceed 90 days. The court may also order a respondent to undergo treatment through a privately funded licensed service provider if the respondent has the ability to pay for the treatment, or if any person on the respondent’s behalf voluntarily demonstrates a willingness and an ability to pay for the treatment. If the court finds it necessary, it may direct the sheriff to take the respondent into custody and deliver him or her to the licensed service provider specified in the court order, or to the nearest appropriate licensed service provider, for involuntary treatment services. When the conditions justifying involuntary treatment services no longer exist, the individual must be released as provided in s. 397.6971. When the conditions justifying involuntary treatment services are expected to exist after 90 days of treatment services, a renewal of the involuntary services order may be requested pursuant to s. 397.6975 before the end of the 90-day period. (b) To qualify for involuntary outpatient treatment, an individual must be supported by a social worker or case manager of a licensed service provider, or a willing, able, and responsible individual appointed by the court who shall inform the court and parties if the respondent fails to comply with his or her outpatient program. In addition, unless the respondent has been involuntarily ordered into inpatient treatment under this chapter at least twice during the last 36 months, or demonstrates the ability to substantially comply with the outpatient treatment while waiting for residential placement to become available, he or she must receive an assessment from a qualified professional or licensed physician expressly recommending outpatient services, such services must be available in the county in which the respondent is located, and it must appear likely that the respondent will follow a prescribed outpatient care plan. (2) In all cases resulting in an order for involuntary treatment services, the court shall retain jurisdiction over the case and the parties for the entry of such further orders as the circumstances may require, including, but not limited to, monitoring compliance with treatment, changing the treatment modality, or initiating contempt of court proceedings for violating any valid order issued pursuant to this chapter. Hearings under this section may be set by motion of the parties or under the court’s own authority, and the motion and notice of hearing for these ancillary proceedings, which include, but are not limited to, civil contempt, must be served in accordance with relevant court procedural rules. The court’s requirements for notification of proposed release must be included in the original order. (3) An involuntary treatment services order also authorizes the licensed service provider to require the individual to receive treatment services that will benefit him or her, including treatment services at any licensable service component of a licensed service provider. (4) If the court orders involuntary treatment services, a copy of the order must be sent to the managing entity, the department, and the Louis de la Parte Florida Institute established under s. 1004.44, within 1 working day after it is received from the court. Documents may be submitted electronically through existing data systems, if applicable. (5) The department and the institute established under s. 1004.44, shall also receive and maintain copies of the involuntary assessment and treatment orders issued pursuant to ss. 397.68151, 397.6818, and 397.6957; the qualified professional assessments; the professional certificates; and the law enforcement officers’ protective custody reports. The institute established under s. 1004.44 shall use such documents to prepare annual reports analyzing the data the documents contain, without including patients’ personal identifying information, and the institute shall post such reports on its website and provide copies of the reports to the department, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives by December 31 of each year.

F.S. 397.701 Local ordinances affecting impairment and public impairment offenses forbidden.

A county, municipality, or other political subdivision of the state may not, except pursuant to the provisions of s. 397.702, adopt a local law, ordinance, resolution, or regulation having the force of law which provides that impairment in public in and of itself, or being found in enumerated places in an impaired condition, is an offense, a violation, or the subject of civil or criminal sanctions or penalties of any kind. This section does not affect offenses involving the operation of motor vehicles, machinery, or other hazardous equipment.

F.S. 397.702 Authorization of local ordinances for treatment of habitual abusers in licensed secure facilities.

(1) Due to the severity in certain areas of the state of chronic and habitual public impairment which infringes upon the public health, safety, and welfare of the citizens, counties and municipalities are authorized to adopt ordinances in strict compliance with this section, notwithstanding the provisions of s. 397.701. (2) Ordinances for the treatment of habitual abusers must provide: (a) For the construction and funding, either individually or jointly with other counties or municipalities, of a licensed secure facility to be used exclusively for the treatment of habitual abusers who meet the criteria in paragraph (b). (b) That when seeking treatment of a habitual abuser, the county or municipality, through an officer or agent specified in the ordinance, must file with the court a petition which alleges the following information about the alleged habitual abuser (the respondent): 1. The name, address, age, and gender of the respondent. 2. The name of any spouse, adult child, other relative, or guardian of the respondent, if known to the petitioner, and the efforts by the petitioner, if any, to ascertain this information. 3. The name of the petitioner, the name of the person who has physical custody of the respondent, and the current location of the respondent. 4. That the respondent has been taken into custody for impairment in a public place, or has been arrested for an offense committed while impaired, three or more times during the preceding 12 months. 5. Specific facts indicating that the respondent meets the criteria for involuntary admission in s. 397.675. 6. Whether the respondent was advised of his or her right to be represented by counsel and to request that the court appoint an attorney if he or she is unable to afford one, and whether the respondent indicated to petitioner his or her desire to have an attorney appointed. (c) That the court with jurisdiction to make the determination authorized by this section shall hear the petition on an emergency basis as soon as practicable but not later than 10 days after the date the petition was filed. If the allegations of the petition indicate that the respondent has requested the appointment of an attorney, or otherwise indicate the absence of any competent person to speak at the hearing on behalf of the respondent, the court shall immediately appoint an attorney to represent the respondent pursuant to s. 397.501(8), and shall provide notice of the hearing to the attorney. When the court sets a hearing date the petitioner shall provide notice of the hearing and a copy of the petition to all of the persons named in the petition pursuant to subparagraph (b)2., and to such other persons as may be ordered by the court to receive notice. (d) That, upon the court’s determination that the allegations of the petition as stated in paragraph (b) are established, the respondent is a habitual abuser and must be detained at the licensed secure facility for a period of up to 90 days as determined by the court for the purpose of participating in a treatment program. (e) That, if the individual still meets the criteria for involuntary admission in s. 397.675 at or near the expiration of the treatment period ordered by the court pursuant to paragraph (d), the agent of the county or municipality may file another habitual abuser petition pursuant to paragraph (b) for a period not exceeding 180 days for each such petition. (f) That a person who is reasonably suspected of meeting the criteria in paragraph (b) may be detained at a licensed service provider or at a licensed secure facility for a period not exceeding 96 hours for purposes of the preparation and filing of the petition. (3) When a petition is filed under an ordinance authorized by this section, alleging a reasonable suspicion that the respondent meets the criteria in paragraph (2)(b), the department and any licensed service provider director with relevant information must, upon the court’s request and in accordance with federal confidentiality regulations, furnish the court with all information necessary to determine the accuracy of the allegations. (4) This section does not affect the operation under contract of any licensed secure correctional facility or licensed service provider at a secure correctional facility which is not operating pursuant to an ordinance adopted under authorization of this section.

F.S. 397.705 Referral of substance abuse impaired offenders to service providers.

(1) AUTHORITY TO REFER. — If any offender, including but not limited to any minor, is charged with or convicted of a crime, the court or criminal justice authority with jurisdiction over that offender may require the offender to receive services from a service provider licensed under this chapter. If referred by the court, the referral shall be in addition to final adjudication, imposition of penalty or sentence, or other action. The court may consult with or seek the assistance of a service provider concerning such a referral. Assignment to a service provider is contingent upon availability of space, budgetary considerations, and manageability of the offender. (2) REFERRAL AND TREATMENT. — (a) An order referring an offender under subsection (1) must be in writing and must be signed by the referral source. The order must specify the name of the offender, the name and address of the service provider to which the offender is referred, the date of the referral, the duration of the offender’s sentence, and all conditions stipulated by the referral source. The total amount of time the offender is required to receive treatment may not exceed the maximum length of sentence possible for the offense with which the offender is charged or convicted. A copy of the order must be delivered to the service provider. (b) The director may refuse to admit any offender referred to the service provider under subsection (1). The director’s refusal to admit the offender must be communicated immediately and in writing within 72 hours to the referral source, stating the basis for such refusal. (c) The director may, after consulting with the referral source, discharge any offender referred to the service provider under subsection (1) when, in the judgment of the director, the offender is beyond the safe management capabilities of the service provider. The director must orally communicate a decision to discharge an offender to the offender and to the referral source, immediately, and must communicate the decision in writing within 72 hours thereafter, stating the basis for the determination that the offender is beyond the safe management capabilities of the facility. (d) When an offender successfully completes treatment or when the time period during which the offender is required to receive treatment expires, the director shall communicate such fact to the referral source.

F.S. 397.706 Screening, assessment, and disposition of juvenile offenders.

(1) The substance abuse treatment needs of juvenile offenders and their families must be identified and addressed through diversionary programs and adjudicatory proceedings pursuant to chapter 984 or chapter 985. (2) The juvenile and circuit courts, in conjunction with department substate entity administration, shall establish policies and procedures to ensure that juvenile offenders are appropriately screened for substance abuse problems and that diversionary and adjudicatory proceedings include appropriate conditions and sanctions to address substance abuse problems. Policies and procedures must address: (a) The designation of local service providers responsible for screening and assessment services and dispositional recommendations to the department and the court. (b) The means by which juvenile offenders are processed to ensure participation in screening and assessment services. (c) The role of the court in securing assessments when juvenile offenders or their families are noncompliant. (d) Safeguards to ensure that information derived through screening and assessment is used solely to assist in dispositional decisions and not for purposes of determining innocence or guilt. (3) Because resources available to support screening and assessment services are limited, the judicial circuits and department substate entity administration must develop those capabilities to the extent possible within available resources according to the following priorities: (a) Juvenile substance abuse offenders. (b) Juvenile offenders who are substance abuse impaired at the time of the offense. (c) Second or subsequent juvenile offenders. (d) Minors taken into custody. (4) The court may require juvenile offenders and their families to participate in substance abuse assessment and treatment services in accordance with the provisions of chapter 984 or chapter 985 and may use its contempt powers to enforce its orders.

F.S. 397.752 Scope of part.

An inmate’s substance abuse service records are confidential in accordance with s. 397.501(7). No other provision of parts I-VII of this chapter applies to inmates except as indicated by the context or specified.

F.S. 397.753 Definitions.

As used in this part: (1) “Department” means the Department of Corrections. (2) “Inmate” means any person committed by a court of competent jurisdiction to the custody of the Department of Corrections, including transfers from federal and state agencies under the Interstate Corrections Compact. (3) “Inmate substance abuse services” means any service component as defined in s. 397.311 provided directly by the Department of Corrections and licensed and regulated by the Department of Children and Families pursuant to s. 397.4014, or provided through contractual arrangements with a service provider licensed pursuant to part II; or any self-help program or volunteer support group operating for inmates.

F.S. 397.754 Duties and responsibilities of the Department of Corrections.

The Department of Corrections shall: (1) To the fullest extent possible provide inmates upon arrival at a Department of Corrections reception center for initial processing with an assessment of substance abuse service needs. (2) Provide inmates who are admitted to inmate substance abuse services with an individualized treatment plan which is developed on the basis of assessed need for services and which includes measurable goals and specifies the types of services needed to meet those goals. (3) To the fullest extent possible provide inmates with individualized services. (4) Develop and maintain systematic methods of research, evaluation, and monitoring of the appropriateness and quality of substance abuse programs. (5) Provide inmates who have participated in substance abuse programs within 1 month of the date of their final release from the correctional facility in which they are incarcerated with information regarding options for continuing substance abuse services in the community and with referrals for such services as appropriate or upon the inmate’s request. (6) In cooperation with other agencies, actively seek to enhance resources for the provision of treatment services for inmates and to develop partnerships with other state agencies, including but not limited to the Departments of Children and Families, Education, Commerce, and Law Enforcement. (7) To the extent of available funding, provide training to employees whose duties involve the provision of inmate substance abuse services. (8) The department shall by rule set forth procedures with respect to individual dignity, nondiscriminatory services, quality services, communication for inmates who receive treatment for substance abuse, and confidentiality requirements in accordance with federal law.

F.S. 397.997 Prevention resources; Internet website.

(1) The department shall develop a publicly available substance abuse prevention Internet website. The information on the Internet website shall target youth and their parents, teachers, and other stakeholders. (2) The Internet website shall incorporate, at a minimum, the following components; (a) The nature of Florida’s current youth alcohol, tobacco, and other drug use concerns; (b) The health, social, and legal effects of alcohol, tobacco, and other drug use on individuals, families, schools, and the economy; (c) National, state, and local substance abuse prevention and treatment resources; and (d) Classroom, home, and individual instructional activities and games geared to teach targeted youth about the harmful effects of alcohol, tobacco, or other drug use, refusal and other prevention skills, and how to get help for someone using drugs.

F.S. 397.998 Drug-free communities support match grants.

(1) PURPOSE. — The purposes of drug-free communities match grants are to: (a) Assist community coalitions in an effort to secure federal drug-free communities support program grants under Pub. L. No. 105-20. (b) Reduce substance abuse among youth and, over time, to reduce substance abuse among adults. (c) Enable community coalitions to strengthen collaboration efforts among public and private agencies to reduce substance abuse among youth. (2) APPLICATION PROCESS. — (a) Contingent upon specific appropriations, the department shall establish a program to provide drug-free communities match grants. (b) The grants shall be used for all or part of the match required for community coalitions to secure a federal drug-free communities support program grant. (3) ELIGIBLE APPLICANTS. — (a) Community coalitions whose members have worked together on substance abuse reduction initiatives for a period of not less than 6 months are eligible to apply for match grant funds. (b) The coalition must represent the targeted community and include at least one representative of each of the following groups: local Department of Children and Families official; youth; parents; business community; media; schools; organizations serving youth; law enforcement agencies; religious or fraternal organizations; civic and volunteer groups; health care professionals; other local or tribal governmental agencies with an expertise in the field of substance abuse, including, if applicable, the state authority with primary authority for substance abuse; and other organizations involved in reducing substance abuse. (c) To demonstrate that the coalition meets the stated criteria, the applicant must submit examples or formal agreements, such as memorandums of understanding, previous newsletters or publications, or other examples of print media coverage that are dated within 6 months prior to submittal of the application. (4) RELEASE OF FUNDS. — Match grant funds shall be released as required by federal regulations to community coalitions upon documentation that a community coalition has been awarded a drug-free communities support program grant. (5) IN-KIND MATCH. — The department may provide other in-kind services or goods allowed by federal regulations in lieu of money, to achieve the purpose of this section.

F.S. 397.4012 Exemptions from licensure.

The following are exempt from the licensing provisions of this chapter: (1) A hospital or hospital-based component licensed under chapter 395. (2) A nursing home facility as defined in s. 400.021. (3) A substance abuse education program established pursuant to s. 1003.42. (4) A facility or institution operated by the Federal Government. (5) A physician or physician assistant licensed under chapter 458 or chapter 459. (6) A psychologist licensed under chapter 490. (7) A social worker, marriage and family therapist, or mental health counselor licensed under chapter 491. (8) A legally cognizable church or nonprofit religious organization or denomination providing substance abuse services, including prevention services, which are solely religious, spiritual, or ecclesiastical in nature. A church or nonprofit religious organization or denomination providing any of the licensed service components itemized under s. 397.311(27) is not exempt from substance abuse licensure but retains its exemption with respect to all services which are solely religious, spiritual, or ecclesiastical in nature. (9) Facilities licensed under chapter 393 which, in addition to providing services to persons with developmental disabilities, also provide services to persons developmentally at risk as a consequence of exposure to alcohol or other legal or illegal drugs while in utero. (10) DUI education and screening services provided pursuant to ss. 316.192, 316.193, 322.095, 322.271, and 322.291. Persons or entities providing treatment services must be licensed under this chapter unless exempted from licensing as provided in this section. (11) A facility licensed under s. 394.875 as a crisis stabilization unit. The exemptions from licensure in subsections (3), (4), (8), (9), and (10) do not apply to any service provider that receives an appropriation, grant, or contract from the state to operate as a service provider as defined in this chapter or to any substance abuse program regulated under s. 397.4014. Furthermore, this chapter may not be construed to limit the practice of a physician or physician assistant licensed under chapter 458 or chapter 459, a psychologist licensed under chapter 490, a psychotherapist licensed under chapter 491, or an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under part I of chapter 464, who provides substance abuse treatment, so long as the physician, physician assistant, psychologist, psychotherapist, or advanced practice registered nurse does not represent to the public that he or she is a licensed service provider and does not provide services to individuals under part V of this chapter. Failure to comply with any requirement necessary to maintain an exempt status under this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

F.S. 397.4014 Licensure and regulation of government-operated substance abuse programs.

Substance abuse programs operated directly or under contract by the department, the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, any other state agency, or any local correctional agency or authority, which programs constitute any service provider licensable components as defined in this chapter, are subject to licensure and regulation in accordance with rules jointly developed by the department and the state or local agency operating the program. The department has authority to exempt such government-operated programs from specific licensure provisions of this part, including, but not limited to, licensure fees and personnel background checks, and to enforce the regulatory requirements governing such programs.

F.S. 397.4073 Background checks of service provider personnel.

(1) PERSONNEL BACKGROUND CHECKS; REQUIREMENTS AND EXCEPTIONS. — (a) For all individuals screened on or after July 1, 2022, background checks shall apply as follows: 1. All owners, directors, chief financial officers, and clinical supervisors of service providers are subject to level 2 background screening as provided under s. 408.809 and chapter 435. Inmate substance abuse programs operated directly or under contract with the Department of Corrections are exempt from this requirement. 2. All service provider personnel who have direct contact with children receiving services or with adults who are developmentally disabled receiving services are subject to level 2 background screening as provided under s. 408.809 and chapter 435. 3. All peer specialists who have direct contact with individuals receiving services are subject to a background screening as provided in s. 397.417(4). (b) Members of a foster family and persons residing with the foster family who are between 12 and 18 years of age are not required to be fingerprinted but must have their backgrounds checked for delinquency records. Members of the foster family and persons residing with the foster family over 18 years of age are subject to full background checks. (c) A volunteer who assists on an intermittent basis for fewer than 40 hours per month and is under direct and constant supervision by persons who meet all personnel requirements of this chapter is exempt from fingerprinting and background check requirements. (d) Service providers that are exempt from licensing provisions of this chapter are exempt from personnel fingerprinting and background check requirements, except as otherwise provided in this section. A church or nonprofit religious organization exempt from licensure under this chapter is required to comply with personnel fingerprinting and background check requirements. (e) Personnel employed directly or under contract with the Department of Corrections in an inmate substance abuse program are exempt from the fingerprinting and background check requirements of this section unless they have direct contact with unmarried inmates under the age of 18 or with inmates who are developmentally disabled. (f) Service provider personnel who request an exemption from disqualification must submit the request within 30 days after being notified of the disqualification. The department shall grant or deny the request within 60 days after receipt of a complete application. (g) If 5 years or more, or 3 years or more in the case of a certified peer specialist or an individual seeking certification as a peer specialist pursuant to s. 397.417, have elapsed since an applicant for an exemption from disqualification has completed or has been lawfully released from confinement, supervision, or a nonmonetary condition imposed by a court for the applicant’s most recent disqualifying offense, the applicant may work with adults with substance use disorders, mental health disorders, or co-occurring disorders under the supervision of persons who meet all personnel requirements of this chapter for up to 180 days after being notified of his or her disqualification or until the department makes a final determination regarding his or her request for an exemption from disqualification, whichever is earlier. (h) The department may not issue a regular license to any service provider that fails to provide proof that background screening information has been submitted in accordance with chapter 435. (i) Any physician licensed under chapter 458 or chapter 459 or a nurse licensed under chapter 464 who was required to undergo background screening by the Department of Health as part of his or her initial licensure or the renewal of licensure, and who has an active and unencumbered license, is not subject to background screening pursuant to this section. (2) EMPLOYMENT HISTORY CHECKS; CHECKS OF REFERENCES. — The department shall assess employment history checks and checks of references for all owners, directors, chief financial officers, and clinical supervisors, and the directors shall assess employment history checks and checks of references for each employee who has direct contact with children receiving services or adults who are developmentally disabled receiving services. (3) PERSONNEL EXEMPT FROM BEING REFINGERPRINTED OR RECHECKED. — (a) Service provider personnel who have been fingerprinted or had their backgrounds checked pursuant to chapter 393, chapter 394, chapter 402, or chapter 409, or this section, and teachers who have been fingerprinted pursuant to chapter 1012, who have not been unemployed for more than 90 days thereafter and who, under the penalty of perjury, attest to the completion of such fingerprinting or background checks and to compliance with the provisions of this section and the standards contained in chapter 435 and this section, are not required to be refingerprinted or rechecked. (b) Service provider owners, directors, chief financial officers, or clinical supervisors who are not covered by paragraph (a) who provide proof of compliance with the level 2 background screening requirements which has been submitted within the previous 5 years in compliance with any other state health care licensure requirements are not required to be refingerprinted or rechecked. (4) EXEMPTIONS FROM DISQUALIFICATION. — (a) The department may grant to any service provider personnel an exemption from disqualification as provided in s. 435.07. (b) For service providers that treat adolescents 13 years of age and older, service provider personnel whose background checks indicate crimes under s. 796.07(2)(e), s. 810.02(4), s. 812.014(2)(c), s. 817.563, s. 831.01, s. 831.02, s. 893.13, or s. 893.147, and any related criminal attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy under s. 777.04: 1. Shall be exempted from disqualification from employment for such offenses pursuant to this paragraph if: a. At least 5 years, or at least 3 years in the case of an individual seeking certification as a peer specialist under s. 397.417, have elapsed since the applicant requesting an exemption has completed or has been lawfully released from any confinement, supervision, or nonmonetary condition imposed by a court for the applicant’s most recent disqualifying offense under this paragraph. b. The applicant for an exemption has not been arrested for any offense during the 5 years, or 3 years in the case of a peer specialist, before the request for exemption. 2. May be exempted from disqualification from employment for such offenses without a waiting period as provided under s. 435.07(2). (c) The department may grant exemptions from disqualification for service provider personnel to work solely in substance use disorder treatment programs, facilities, or recovery residences or in programs or facilities that treat co-occurring substance use and mental health disorders. The department may further limit such exemptions from disqualification to working with adults in substance abuse treatment facilities. (5) PAYMENT FOR PROCESSING OF FINGERPRINTS AND STATE CRIMINAL RECORDS CHECKS. — The employing service provider or the personnel who are having their backgrounds checked are responsible for paying the costs of processing fingerprints and criminal records checks. (6) DISQUALIFICATION FROM RECEIVING STATE FUNDS. — State funds may not be disseminated to any service provider owned or operated by an owner, director, or chief financial officer who has been convicted of, has entered a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, or has had adjudication withheld for, a violation of s. 893.135 pertaining to trafficking in controlled substances, or a violation of the law of another state, the District of Columbia, the United States or any possession or territory thereof, or any foreign jurisdiction which is substantially similar in elements and penalties to a trafficking offense in this state, unless the owner’s or director’s civil rights have been restored.

F.S. 397.4075 Unlawful activities relating to personnel; penalties.

It is a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083, for any person willfully, knowingly, or intentionally to: (1) Inaccurately disclose by false statement, misrepresentation, impersonation, or other fraudulent means, or fail to disclose, in any application for licensure or voluntary or paid employment, any fact which is material in making a determination as to the person’s qualifications to be an owner, a director, a volunteer, or other personnel of a service provider; (2) Operate or attempt to operate as a service provider with personnel who are in noncompliance with the minimum standards contained in this chapter; or (3) Use or release any criminal or juvenile information obtained under this chapter for any purpose other than background checks of personnel for employment.

F.S. 397.4103 Quality improvement programs.

(1) Each service provider must maintain a quality improvement program to objectively and systematically monitor and evaluate the appropriateness and quality of care, to ensure that services are rendered consistent with prevailing professional standards, and to identify and resolve problems. (2) For each service provider, a written plan must be developed with a copy made available upon request to the department which addresses the minimum guidelines for the provider’s quality improvement program, including, but not limited to: (a) Individual care and services standards. (b) Individual records maintenance procedures. (c) Staff development policies and procedures. (d) Service-environment safety and maintenance standards. (e) Peer review and utilization management review procedures. (f) Incident reporting policies and procedures that include verification of corrective action, provision for reporting to the department within a time period prescribed by rule, documentation that incident reporting is the affirmative duty of all staff, and a provision that specifies that a person who files an incident report may not be subjected to any civil action by virtue of that incident report. (3) The quality improvement program is the responsibility of the director and is subject to review and approval by the governing board of the service provider. (4) Each director shall designate a person who is an employee of or under contract with the service provider as the provider’s quality improvement manager. (5) The department may access all service provider records necessary to determine compliance with this section. Records relating solely to actions taken in carrying out this section and records obtained by the department to determine a provider’s compliance with this section are confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. Such records are not admissible in any civil or administrative action except in disciplinary proceedings by the Department of Health or the appropriate regulatory board, and are not part of the record of investigation and prosecution in disciplinary proceedings made available to the public by the Department of Health or the appropriate regulatory board. Meetings or portions of meetings of quality improvement program committees that relate solely to actions taken pursuant to this section are exempt from s. 286.011. (6) The quality improvement program must also: (a) Provide a framework for evaluating outcomes, including: 1. Output measures, such as capacities, technologies, and infrastructure, that make up the system of care. 2. Process measures, such as administrative and clinical components of treatment. 3. Outcome measures pertaining to the outcomes of services; (b) Provide for a system of analyzing those factors which have an effect on performance at the local level; (c) Provide for a system of reporting the results of quality improvement reviews; and (d) Incorporate best practice models for use in improving performance in those areas which are deficient. (7) Contingent upon specific appropriation, a quality improvement coordinator position shall be established within each substate entity to oversee the implementation and operation of the quality improvement program.

F.S. 397.4104 Record of recovery residences used by service providers.

(1) By July 1, 2022, a service provider shall record in the department’s Provider Licensure and Designations System the name and location of each recovery residence that the service provider has referred patients to or received patients from and update the record with any changes that occur. A service provider must update such record within 30 business days after the change. (2) Beginning July 1, 2022, a licensed service provider that violates this section is subject to an administrative fine of $1,000 per occurrence. The department may suspend or revoke a service provider’s license pursuant to s. 397.415 for repeat violations of this section.

F.S. 397.4871 Recovery residence administrator certification.

(1) It is the intent of the Legislature that a recovery residence administrator voluntarily earn and maintain certification from a credentialing entity approved by the Department of Children and Families. The Legislature further intends that certification ensure that an administrator has the competencies necessary to appropriately respond to the needs of residents, to maintain residence standards, and to meet residence certification requirements. (2) The department shall approve at least one credentialing entity by December 1, 2015, for the purpose of developing and administering a voluntary credentialing program for administrators. The department shall approve any credentialing entity that the department endorses pursuant to s. 397.321(15) if the credentialing entity also meets the requirements of this section. The approved credentialing entity shall: (a) Establish recovery residence administrator core competencies, certification requirements, testing instruments, and recertification requirements. (b) Establish a process to administer the certification application, award, and maintenance processes. (c) Develop and administer: 1. A code of ethics and disciplinary process. 2. Biennial continuing education requirements and annual certification renewal requirements. 3. An education provider program to approve training entities that are qualified to provide precertification training to applicants and continuing education opportunities to certified persons. (3) A credentialing entity shall establish a certification program that: (a) Is directly related to the core competencies. (b) Establishes minimum requirements in each of the following categories: 1. Training. 2. On-the-job work experience. 3. Supervision. 4. Testing. 5. Biennial continuing education. (c) Requires adherence to a code of ethics and provides for a disciplinary process that applies to certified persons. (d) Approves qualified training entities that provide precertification training to applicants and continuing education to certified recovery residence administrators. To avoid a conflict of interest, a credentialing entity or its affiliate may not deliver training to an applicant or continuing education to a certificateholder. (4) A credentialing entity shall establish application, examination, and certification fees and an annual certification renewal fee. The application, examination, and certification fee may not exceed $225. The annual certification renewal fee may not exceed $100. (5) All applicants are subject to level 2 background screening as provided under chapter 435. An applicant is ineligible, and a credentialing entity shall deny the application, if the applicant has been found guilty of, or has entered a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, regardless of adjudication, any offense listed in s. 408.809 or s. 435.04(2) unless the department has issued an exemption under s. 435.07. Exemptions from disqualification applicable to service provider personnel pursuant to s. 397.4073 or s. 435.07 shall apply to this subsection. In accordance with s. 435.04, the department shall notify the credentialing agency of the applicant’s eligibility based on the results of his or her background screening. (6) The credentialing entity shall issue a certificate of compliance upon approval of a person’s application. The certification shall automatically terminate 1 year after issuance if not renewed. (a) A credentialing entity may suspend or revoke the recovery residence administrator’s certificate of compliance if the recovery residence administrator fails to adhere to the continuing education requirements. (b) If a certified recovery residence administrator of a recovery residence is arrested and awaiting disposition for or found guilty of, or enters a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, regardless of whether adjudication is withheld, any offense listed in s. 435.04(2) while acting in that capacity, the certified recovery residence must immediately remove the person from that position and notify the credentialing entity within 3 business days after such removal. The certified recovery residence shall retain a certified recovery residence administrator within 90 days after such removal. The credentialing entity must revoke the certificate of compliance of any recovery residence that fails to meet these requirements. (c) A credentialing entity must revoke a certified recovery residence administrator’s certificate of compliance if the recovery residence administrator provides false or misleading information to the credentialing entity at any time. (7) A person may not advertise himself or herself to the public, in any way or by any medium whatsoever, as a “certified recovery residence administrator” unless he or she has first secured a certificate of compliance under this section. A person who violates this subsection commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083. (8)(a) A certified recovery residence administrator must demonstrate the ability to effectively and appropriately respond to the needs of residents, to maintain residence standards, and to meet the certification requirements of this section. (b) A certified recovery residence administrator may not actively manage more than 50 residents at any given time unless written justification is provided to, and approved by, the credentialing entity as to how the administrator is able to effectively and appropriately respond to the needs of the residents, to maintain residence standards, and to meet the residence certification requirements of this section. However, a certified recovery residence administrator may not actively manage more than 100 residents at any given time. (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), a Level IV certified recovery residence operating as community housing as defined in s. 397.311(9), which residence is actively managed by a certified recovery residence administrator approved for 100 residents under this section and is wholly owned or controlled by a licensed service provider, may: 1. Actively manage up to 150 residents so long as the licensed service provider maintains a service provider personnel-to-patient ratio of 1 to 8 and maintains onsite supervision at the residence during times when residents are at the residence with a personnel-to-resident ratio of 1 to 10. 2. Actively manage up to 300 residents, so long as the licensed service provider maintains a service provider personnel-to-patient ratio of 1 to 8 and maintains onsite supervision at the residence during times when residents are at the residence with a personnel-to-resident ratio of 1 to 6. A certified recovery residence administrator who has been removed by a certified recovery residence due to termination, resignation, or any other reason may not continue to actively manage more than 50 residents for another service provider or certified recovery residence without being approved by the credentialing entity.

F.S. 397.4872 Exemption from disqualification; publication.

(1) Individual exemptions to staff disqualification or administrator ineligibility may be requested if a recovery residence deems the decision will benefit the program. Requests for exemptions must be submitted in writing to the department within 20 days after the denial by the credentialing entity and must include a justification for the exemption. (2) The credentialing entity must notify the department within 3 business days after a new recovery residence or recovery residence administrator is certified or a recovery residence or recovery residence administrator’s certificate expires or is terminated. The department shall publish on its website a list of all recovery residences that hold a valid certificate of compliance. The department shall also publish on its website a list of all recovery residence administrators who hold a valid certificate of compliance. A recovery residence or recovery residence administrator shall be excluded from the list upon written request to the department by the listed individual or entity.

F.S. 397.4873 Referrals to or from recovery residences; prohibitions; penalties.

(1) A service provider licensed under this part may not make a referral of a prospective, current, or discharged patient to, or accept a referral of such a patient from, a recovery residence unless the recovery residence holds a valid certificate of compliance as provided in s. 397.487 and is actively managed by a certified recovery residence administrator as provided in s. 397.4871. (2) Subsection (1) does not apply to: (a) A licensed service provider under contract with a managing entity as defined in s. 394.9082. (b) Referrals by a recovery residence to a licensed service provider when the recovery residence or its owners, directors, operators, or employees do not benefit, directly or indirectly, from the referral. (c) Referrals made before July 1, 2018, by a licensed service provider to that licensed service provider’s wholly owned subsidiary. (d) The referral of a patient to, or acceptance of a referral of such a patient from, a recovery residence that has no direct or indirect financial or other referral relationship with the licensed service provider and that is democratically operated by its residents pursuant to a charter from an entity recognized or sanctioned by Congress, and where the residence or any resident of the residence does not receive a benefit, directly or indirectly, for the referral. (3) Notwithstanding subsection (2), a service provider licensed under this part may not make a referral of a prospective, current, or discharged patient to, or accept a referral of such patient from, a recovery residence that allows on its premises the use of alcohol, marijuana, or illegal drugs or the use of prescribed medications by an individual other than the individual for whom the medication is prescribed. For the purposes of this subsection, “marijuana” includes marijuana that has been certified by a qualified physician for medical use in accordance with s. 381.986. (4)(a) For purposes of this section, a licensed service provider or recovery residence shall be considered to have made a referral if the provider or recovery residence has informed a patient by any means about the name, address, or other details of a recovery residence or licensed service provider, or informed a licensed service provider or a recovery residence of any identifying details about a patient. (b) A referral shall also include the placement of a patient by a licensed service provider into the housing component of the provider’s day or night treatment, which has a community housing license, regardless of whether the community housing component is affiliated with the licensed service provider. (5) In addition to any other punishment provided by law, any person who willfully and knowingly violates subsection (1) commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083. (6) A licensed service provider shall maintain records of referrals to or from recovery residences as may be prescribed by the department in rule. (7) A licensed service provider that violates this section is subject to an administrative fine of $1,000 per occurrence. If such fine is imposed by final order of the department and is not subject to further appeal, the service provider shall pay the fine plus interest at the rate specified in s. 55.03 for each day beyond the date set by the department for payment of the fine. If the service provider does not pay the fine plus any applicable interest within 60 days after the date set by the department, the department shall immediately suspend the service provider’s license. Repeat violations of this section may subject a provider to license suspension or revocation pursuant to s. 397.415. The department shall establish a mechanism no later than January 1, 2024, for the imposition and collection of fines for violations under this section. (8) Nothing in this section requires a licensed service provider to refer a patient to or to accept a referral of a patient from a recovery residence.

F.S. 397.6751 Service provider responsibilities regarding involuntary admissions.

(1) It is the responsibility of the service provider to: (a) Ensure that a person who is admitted to a licensed service component meets the admission criteria specified in s. 397.675; (b) Ascertain whether the medical and behavioral conditions of the person, as presented, are beyond the safe management capabilities of the service provider; (c) Provide for the admission of the person to the service component that represents the most appropriate and least restrictive available setting that is responsive to the person’s treatment needs; (d) Verify that the admission of the person to the service component does not result in a census in excess of its licensed service capacity; (e) Determine whether the cost of services is within the financial means of the person or those who are financially responsible for the person’s care; and (f) Take all necessary measures to ensure that each individual in treatment is provided with a safe environment, and to ensure that each individual whose medical condition or behavioral problem becomes such that he or she cannot be safely managed by the service component is discharged and referred to a more appropriate setting for care. (2)(a) When, in the judgment of the service provider, the person who is being presented for involuntary admission should not be admitted because of his or her failure to meet admission criteria, because his or her medical or behavioral conditions are beyond the safe management capabilities of the service provider, or because of a lack of available space, services, or financial resources to pay for his or her care, the service provider, in accordance with federal confidentiality regulations, must attempt to contact the referral source, which may be a law enforcement officer, physician, parent, legal guardian if applicable, court and petitioner, or other referring party, to discuss the circumstances and assist in arranging for alternative interventions. (b) When the service provider is unable to reach the referral source, the service provider must refuse admission and attempt to assist the person in gaining access to other appropriate services, if indicated. (c) Upon completing these efforts, the service provider must, within one workday, report in writing to the referral sources, in compliance with federal confidentiality regulations: 1. The basis for the refusal to admit the person, and 2. Documentation of the service provider’s efforts to contact the referral source and assist the person, when indicated, in gaining access to more appropriate services. (3) When, in the judgment of the service provider, the medical conditions or behavioral problems of an involuntary individual become such that they cannot be safely managed by the service component, the service provider must discharge the individual and attempt to assist him or her in securing more appropriate services in a setting more responsive to his or her needs. Upon completing these efforts, the service provider must, within 72 hours, report in writing to the referral source, in compliance with federal confidentiality regulations: (a) The basis for the individual’s discharge; and (b) Documentation of the service provider’s efforts to assist the person in gaining access to appropriate services.

F.S. 397.6752 Referral of involuntarily admitted individual for voluntary treatment.

Upon giving his or her written informed consent, an involuntarily admitted individual may be referred to a service provider for voluntary admission when the service provider determines that the individual no longer meets involuntary criteria.

F.S. 397.6758 Release of individual from protective custody, emergency admission, involuntary assessment, involuntary treatment, and alternative involuntary assessment of a minor.

An individual involuntarily admitted to a licensed service provider may be released without further order of the court only by a qualified professional in a hospital, a detoxification facility, an addictions receiving facility, or any less restrictive treatment component. Notice of the release must be provided to the applicant in the case of an emergency admission or an alternative involuntary assessment for a minor, or to the petitioner and the court if the involuntary assessment or treatment was court ordered. In the case of a minor, the release must be: (1) To the individual’s parent, legal guardian, or legal custodian or the authorized designee thereof; (2) To the Department of Children and Families pursuant to s. 39.401; or (3) To the Department of Juvenile Justice pursuant to s. 984.13.

F.S. 397.6759 Parental participation in treatment.

A parent, legal guardian, or legal custodian who seeks involuntary admission of a minor pursuant to ss. 397.675-397.6977 is required to participate in all aspects of treatment as determined appropriate by the director of the licensed service provider.

F.S. 397.6760 Court records; confidentiality.

(1) All petitions for involuntary assessment and stabilization, court orders, and related records that are filed with or by a court under this part are confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. Pleadings and other documents made confidential and exempt by this section may be disclosed by the clerk of the court, upon request, to any of the following: (a) The petitioner. (b) The petitioner’s attorney. (c) The respondent. (d) The respondent’s attorney. (e) The respondent’s guardian or guardian advocate, if applicable. (f) In the case of a minor respondent, the respondent’s parent, guardian, legal custodian, or guardian advocate. (g) The respondent’s treating health care practitioner. (h) The respondent’s health care surrogate or proxy. (i) The Department of Children and Families, without charge. (j) The Department of Corrections, without charge, if the respondent is committed or is to be returned to the custody of the Department of Corrections from the Department of Children and Families. (k) A person or entity authorized to view records upon a court order for good cause. In determining if there is good cause for the disclosure of records, the court must weigh the person or entity’s need for the information against potential harm to the respondent from the disclosure. (2) This section does not preclude the clerk of the court from submitting the information required by s. 790.065 to the Department of Law Enforcement. (3) The clerk of the court may not publish personal identifying information on a court docket or in a publicly accessible file. (4) A person or entity receiving information pursuant to this section shall maintain that information as confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. (5) The exemption under this section applies to all documents filed with a court before, on, or after July 1, 2017.

F.S. 397.6771 Protective custody with consent.

A person in circumstances which justify protective custody, as described in s. 397.677, may consent to be assisted by a law enforcement officer to his or her home, to a hospital, or to a licensed detoxification or addictions receiving facility, whichever the officer determines is most appropriate.

F.S. 397.6772 Protective custody without consent.

(1) If a person in circumstances which justify protective custody as described in s. 397.677 fails or refuses to consent to assistance and a law enforcement officer has determined that a hospital or a licensed detoxification or addictions receiving facility is the most appropriate place for the person, the officer may, after giving due consideration to the expressed wishes of the person: (a) Take the person to a hospital or to a licensed detoxification or addictions receiving facility against the person’s will but without using unreasonable force. The officer shall use the standard form developed by the department pursuant to s. 397.321 to execute a written report detailing the circumstances under which the person was taken into custody. The report must include all emergency contact information for the person that is readily accessible to the law enforcement officer, including information available through electronic databases maintained by the Department of Law Enforcement or by the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles. Such emergency contact information may be used by a hospital or licensed detoxification or addictions receiving facility only for the purpose of informing listed emergency contacts of a patient’s whereabouts pursuant to s. 119.0712(2)(d). The written report shall be included in the patient’s clinical record; or (b) In the case of an adult, detain the person for his or her own protection in any municipal or county jail or other appropriate detention facility. Such detention is not to be considered an arrest for any purpose, and no entry or other record may be made to indicate that the person has been detained or charged with any crime. The officer in charge of the detention facility must notify the nearest appropriate licensed service provider within the first 8 hours after detention that the person has been detained. It is the duty of the detention facility to arrange, as necessary, for transportation of the person to an appropriate licensed service provider with an available bed. Persons taken into protective custody must be assessed by the attending physician within the 72-hour period and without unnecessary delay, to determine the need for further services. (2) The law enforcement officer must notify the nearest relative of a minor in protective custody and must notify the nearest relative or other known emergency contact of an adult, unless the adult requests that there be no notification. The law enforcement officer must document such notification, and any attempts at notification, in the written report detailing the circumstances under which the person was taken into custody as required under paragraph (1)(a).

F.S. 397.6773 Dispositional alternatives after protective custody.

(1) An individual who is in protective custody must be released by a qualified professional when: (a) The individual no longer meets the involuntary admission criteria in s. 397.675; (b) The 72-hour period has elapsed; or (c) The individual has consented to remain voluntarily at the licensed service provider. (2) An individual may only be retained in protective custody beyond the 72-hour period when a petition for involuntary assessment or treatment has been initiated. The timely filing of the petition authorizes the service provider to retain physical custody of the individual pending further order of the court.

F.S. 397.6774 Department to maintain lists of licensed facilities.

The department shall provide each municipal and county public safety office with a list of licensed hospitals, detoxification facilities, and addictions receiving facilities, including the name, address, and phone number of, and the services offered by, the licensed service provider.

F.S. 397.6775 Immunity from liability.

A law enforcement officer acting in good faith pursuant to this part may not be held criminally or civilly liable for false imprisonment.

F.S. 397.6791 Emergency admission; persons who may initiate.

The following persons may request a certificate for emergency assessment or admission: (1) In the case of an adult, any professional who may issue a professional certificate pursuant to s. 397.6793, the person’s spouse or legal guardian, any relative of the person, or any other responsible adult who has personal knowledge of the person’s substance abuse impairment. (2) In the case of a minor, the minor’s parent, legal guardian, or legal custodian.

F.S. 397.6793 Professional’s certificate for emergency admission.

(1) A physician, a clinical psychologist, a physician assistant working under the scope of practice of the supervising physician, a psychiatric nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a mental health counselor, a marriage and family therapist, a master’s-level-certified addictions professional for substance abuse services, or a clinical social worker may execute a professional’s certificate for emergency admission. The professional’s certificate must include the name of the person to be admitted, the relationship between the person and the professional executing the certificate, the relationship between the applicant and the professional, any relationship between the professional and the licensed service provider, a statement that the person has been examined and assessed within the preceding 5 days after the application date, and factual allegations with respect to the need for emergency admission, including: (a) The reason for the belief that the person is substance abuse impaired; (b) The reason for the belief that because of such impairment the person has lost the power of self-control with respect to substance abuse; and (c)1. The reason for the belief that, without care or treatment, the person is likely to suffer from neglect or refuse to care for himself or herself; that such neglect or refusal poses a real and present threat of substantial harm to his or her well-being; and that it is not apparent that such harm may be avoided through the help of willing family members or friends or the provision of other services, or there is substantial likelihood that the person has inflicted or, unless admitted, is likely to inflict, physical harm on himself, herself, or another; or 2. The reason for the belief that the person’s refusal to voluntarily receive care is based on judgment so impaired by reason of substance abuse that the person is incapable of appreciating his or her need for care and of making a rational decision regarding his or her need for care. (2) The professional’s certificate must recommend the least restrictive type of service that is appropriate for the person. The certificate must be signed by the professional. If other less restrictive means are not available, such as voluntary appearance for outpatient evaluation, a law enforcement officer shall take the person named in the certificate into custody and deliver him or her to the appropriate facility for involuntary assessment and stabilization. (3) A signed copy of the professional’s certificate shall accompany the person and shall be made a part of the person’s clinical record, together with a signed copy of the application. The application and the professional’s certificate authorize the involuntary admission of the person pursuant to, and subject to the provisions of, ss. 397.679-397.6797. (4) The professional’s certificate is valid for 7 days after issuance. (5) The professional’s certificate must indicate whether the person requires transportation assistance for delivery for emergency admission and specify, pursuant to s. 397.6795, the type of transportation assistance necessary.

F.S. 397.6795 Transportation-assisted delivery of persons for emergency assessment.

An applicant for a person’s emergency admission, the person’s spouse or guardian, or a law enforcement officer may deliver a person named in the professional’s certificate for emergency admission to a hospital or a licensed detoxification facility or addictions receiving facility for emergency assessment and stabilization.

F.S. 397.6797 Dispositional alternatives after emergency admission.

Within 72 hours after an emergency admission to a hospital or a licensed detoxification or addictions receiving facility, the individual must be assessed by the attending physician to determine the need for further services. Within 5 days after an emergency admission to a nonresidential component of a licensed service provider, the individual must be assessed by a qualified professional to determine the need for further services. Based upon that assessment, a qualified professional of the hospital, detoxification facility, or addictions receiving facility, or a qualified professional if a less restrictive component was used, must either: (1) Release the individual and, where appropriate, refer the individual to other needed services; or (2) Retain the individual when: (a) The individual has consented to remain voluntarily at the licensed provider; or (b) A petition for involuntary assessment or treatment has been initiated, the timely filing of which authorizes the service provider to retain physical custody of the individual pending further order of the court.

F.S. 397.6798 Alternative involuntary assessment procedure for minors.

(1) In addition to protective custody, emergency admission, and involuntary assessment and stabilization, an addictions receiving facility may admit a minor for involuntary assessment and stabilization upon the filing of an application to an addictions receiving facility by the minor’s parent, guardian, or legal custodian. The application must establish the need for involuntary assessment and stabilization based on the criteria for involuntary admission in s. 397.675. Within 72 hours after involuntary admission of a minor, the minor must be assessed to determine the need for further services. Assessments must be performed by a qualified professional. If, after the 72-hour period, it is determined by the attending physician that further services are necessary, the minor may be kept for a period of up to 5 days, inclusive of the 72-hour period. (2) An application for alternative involuntary assessment for a minor must establish the need for immediate involuntary admission and contain the name of the minor to be admitted, the name and signature of the applicant, the relationship between the minor to be admitted and the applicant, and factual allegations with respect to: (a) The reason for the applicant’s belief that the minor is substance abuse impaired; and (b) The reason for the applicant’s belief that because of such impairment the minor has lost the power of self-control with respect to substance abuse; and either (c)1. The reason the applicant believes that the minor has inflicted or is likely to inflict physical harm on himself or herself or others unless admitted; or 2. The reason the applicant believes that the minor’s refusal to voluntarily receive substance abuse services is based on judgment so impaired by reason of substance abuse that he or she is incapable of appreciating his or her need for such services and of making a rational decision regarding his or her need for services.

F.S. 397.6799 Disposition of minor upon completion of alternative involuntary assessment.

A minor who has been assessed pursuant to s. 397.6798 must, within the time specified, be released or referred for further voluntary or involuntary treatment, whichever is most appropriate to the needs of the minor.

F.S. 397.6818 Court determination.

(1) When the petitioner asserts that emergency circumstances exist, or when upon review of the petition the court determines that an emergency exists, the court may rely solely on the contents of the petition and, without the appointment of an attorney, enter an ex parte order for the respondent’s involuntary assessment and stabilization which must be executed during the period when the hearing on the petition for treatment is pending. (2) The court may further order a law enforcement officer or another designated agent of the court to: (a) Take the respondent into custody and deliver him or her for evaluation to either the nearest appropriate licensed service provider or a licensed service provider designated by the court. (b) Serve the respondent with the notice of hearing and a copy of the petition. (3) The service provider may not hold the respondent for longer than 72 hours of observation, unless: (a) The service provider seeks additional time under s. 397.6957(1)(c) and the court, after a hearing, grants that motion; (b) The respondent shows signs of withdrawal, or a need to be either detoxified or treated for a medical condition, which shall extend the amount of time the respondent may be held for observation until the issue is resolved but no later than the scheduled hearing date, absent a court-approved extension; or (c) The original or extended observation period ends on a weekend or holiday, including the hours before the ordinary business hours of the following workday morning, in which case the provider may hold the respondent until the next court working day. (4) If the ex parte order was not executed by the initial hearing date, it is deemed void. However, if the respondent does not appear at the hearing for any reason, including lack of service, and upon reviewing the petition, testimony, and evidence presented, the court reasonably believes the respondent meets this chapter’s commitment criteria and that a substance abuse emergency exists, the court may issue or reissue an ex parte assessment and stabilization order that is valid for 90 days. If the respondent’s location is known at the time of the hearing, the court: (a) Must continue the case for no more than 10 court working days; and (b) May order a law enforcement officer or another designated agent of the court to: 1. Take the respondent into custody and deliver him or her for evaluation to either the nearest appropriate licensed service provider or a licensed service provider designated by the court; and 2. If a hearing date is set, serve the respondent with notice of the rescheduled hearing and a copy of the involuntary treatment petition if the respondent has not already been served. Otherwise, the petitioner must inform the court that the respondent has been assessed so that the court may schedule a hearing as soon as is practicable. However, if the respondent has not been assessed within 90 days, the court must dismiss the case.

F.S. 397.6957 Hearing on petition for involuntary treatment services.

(1)(a) The respondent must be present at a hearing on a petition for involuntary treatment services unless the court finds that he or she knowingly, intelligently, and voluntarily waives his or her right to be present or, upon receiving proof of service and evaluating the circumstances of the case, that his or her presence is inconsistent with his or her best interests or is likely to be injurious to self or others. The court shall hear and review all relevant evidence, including testimony from individuals such as family members familiar with the respondent’s prior history and how it relates to his or her current condition, and the results of the assessment completed by the qualified professional in connection with this chapter. The court may also order drug tests. Witnesses may remotely attend and, as appropriate, testify at the hearing under oath via audio-video telecommunications technology. A witness intending to remotely attend and testify must provide the parties with all relevant documents by the close of business on the day before the hearing. (b) A respondent may not be involuntarily ordered into treatment under this chapter without a clinical assessment being performed, unless he or she is present in court and expressly waives the assessment. In nonemergency situations, if the respondent was not, or had previously refused to be, assessed by a qualified professional and, based on the petition, testimony, and evidence presented, it reasonably appears that the respondent qualifies for involuntary treatment services, the court shall issue an involuntary assessment and stabilization order to determine the appropriate level of treatment the respondent requires. Additionally, in cases where an assessment was attached to the petition, the respondent may request, or the court on its own motion may order, an independent assessment by a court-appointed or otherwise agreed upon qualified professional. The respondent shall be informed by the court of the right to an independent assessment. If an assessment order is issued, it is valid for 90 days, and if the respondent is present or there is either proof of service or his or her location is known, the involuntary treatment hearing shall be continued for no more than 10 court working days. Otherwise, the petitioner must inform the court that the respondent has been assessed so that the court may schedule a hearing as soon as is practicable. The assessment must occur before the new hearing date, and if there is evidence indicating that the respondent will not voluntarily appear at the forthcoming hearing or is a danger to self or others, the court may enter a preliminary order committing the respondent to an appropriate treatment facility for further evaluation until the date of the rescheduled hearing. However, if after 90 days the respondent remains unassessed, the court shall dismiss the case. (c)1. The respondent’s assessment by a qualified professional must occur within 72 hours after his or her arrival at a licensed service provider unless the respondent shows signs of withdrawal or a need to be either detoxified or treated for a medical condition, which shall extend the amount of time the respondent may be held for observation until such issue is resolved but no later than the scheduled hearing date, absent a court-approved extension. If the respondent is a minor, such assessment must be initiated within the first 12 hours of the minor’s admission to the facility. The service provider may also move to extend the 72 hours of observation by petitioning the court in writing for additional time. The service provider must furnish copies of such motion to all parties in accordance with applicable confidentiality requirements, and after a hearing, the court may grant additional time. If the court grants the service provider’s petition, the service provider may continue to hold the respondent, and if the original or extended observation period ends on a weekend or holiday, including the hours before the ordinary business hours of the following workday morning, the provider may hold the respondent until the next court working day. 2. No later than the ordinary close of business on the day before the hearing, the qualified professional shall transmit, in accordance with any applicable confidentiality requirements, his or her clinical assessment to the clerk of the court, who shall enter it into the court file. The report must contain a recommendation on the level of substance abuse treatment the respondent requires, if any, and the relevant information on which the qualified professional’s findings are based. This document must further note whether the respondent has any co-occurring mental health or other treatment needs. For adults subject to an involuntary assessment, the report’s filing with the court satisfies s. 397.6758 if it also contains the respondent’s admission and discharge information. The qualified professional’s failure to include a treatment recommendation, much like a recommendation of no treatment, shall result in the petition’s dismissal. (2) The petitioner has the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that: (a) The respondent is substance abuse impaired and has a history of lack of compliance with treatment for substance abuse; and (b) Because of such impairment the respondent is unlikely to voluntarily participate in the recommended services or is unable to determine for himself or herself whether services are necessary and: 1. Without services, the respondent is likely to suffer from neglect or refuse to care for himself or herself; that such neglect or refusal poses a real and present threat of substantial harm to his or her well-being; and that there is a substantial likelihood that without services the respondent will cause serious bodily harm to himself, herself, or another in the near future, as evidenced by recent behavior; or 2. The respondent’s refusal to voluntarily receive care is based on judgment so impaired by reason of substance abuse that the respondent is incapable of appreciating his or her need for care and of making a rational decision regarding that need for care. (3) Testimony in the hearing must be taken under oath, and the proceedings must be recorded. The respondent may refuse to testify at the hearing. (4) If at any point during the hearing the court has reason to believe that the respondent, due to mental illness other than or in addition to substance abuse impairment, meets the involuntary commitment provisions of part I of chapter 394, the court may initiate involuntary examination proceedings under such provisions. (5) At the conclusion of the hearing the court shall either dismiss the petition or order the respondent to receive involuntary treatment services from his or her chosen licensed service provider if possible and appropriate. Any treatment order must include findings regarding the respondent’s need for treatment and the appropriateness of other less restrictive alternatives.

F.S. 397.6971 Early release from involuntary services.

(1) At any time before the end of the 90-day involuntary treatment services period, or before the end of any extension granted pursuant to s. 397.6975, an individual receiving involuntary treatment services may be determined eligible for discharge to the most appropriate referral or disposition for the individual when any of the following apply: (a) The individual no longer meets the criteria for involuntary admission and has given his or her informed consent to be transferred to voluntary treatment status. (b) If the individual was admitted on the grounds of likelihood of infliction of physical harm upon himself or herself or others, such likelihood no longer exists. (c) If the individual was admitted on the grounds of need for assessment and stabilization or treatment, accompanied by inability to make a determination respecting such need: 1. Such inability no longer exists; or 2. It is evident that further treatment will not bring about further significant improvements in the individual’s condition. (d) The individual no longer needs treatment services. (e) The director of the service provider determines that the individual is beyond the safe management capabilities of the provider. (2) Whenever a qualified professional determines that an individual admitted for involuntary treatment services qualifies for early release under subsection (1), the service provider shall immediately discharge the individual and must notify all persons specified by the court in the original treatment order.

F.S. 397.6975 Extension of involuntary treatment services period.

(1) Whenever a service provider believes that an individual who is nearing the scheduled date of his or her release from involuntary treatment services continues to meet the criteria for involuntary services in s. 397.68111 or s. 397.6957, a petition for renewal of the involuntary treatment services order must be filed with the court before the expiration of the court-ordered services period. The petition may be filed by the service provider or by the person who filed the petition for the initial treatment order if the petition is accompanied by supporting documentation from the service provider. The court shall immediately schedule a hearing within 10 court working days to be held not more than 15 days after filing of the petition, and the court shall provide the copy of the petition for renewal and the notice of the hearing to all parties and counsel to the proceeding. The hearing is conducted pursuant to ss. 397.6957 and 397.697 and must be held before the circuit court unless referred to a magistrate. (2) If the court finds that the petition for renewal of the involuntary treatment services order should be granted, it may order the respondent to receive involuntary treatment services for a period not to exceed an additional 90 days. When the conditions justifying involuntary treatment services no longer exist, the individual must be released as provided in s. 397.6971. When the conditions justifying involuntary services continue to exist after an additional 90 days of service, a new petition requesting renewal of the involuntary treatment services order may be filed pursuant to this section.

F.S. 397.6977 Disposition of individual upon completion of involuntary services.

(1) At the conclusion of the 90-day period of court-ordered involuntary services, the respondent is automatically discharged unless a motion for renewal of the involuntary services order has been filed with the court pursuant to s. 397.6975. (2) Discharge planning and procedures for any respondent’s release from involuntary treatment services must include and document the respondent’s needs, and actions to address such needs, for, at a minimum: (a) Follow-up behavioral health appointments. (b) Information on how to obtain prescribed medications. (c) Information pertaining to available living arrangements and transportation. (d) Referral to recovery support opportunities, including, but not limited to, connection to a peer specialist.

F.S. 397.68111 Involuntary treatment.

A person may be the subject of a petition for court-ordered involuntary treatment pursuant to this part if that person: (1) Reasonably appears to meet the criteria for involuntary admission provided in s. 397.675; (2) Has been placed under protective custody pursuant to s. 397.677 within the previous 10 days; (3) Has been subject to an emergency admission pursuant to s. 397.679 within the previous 10 days; or (4) Has been assessed by a qualified professional within 30 days.

F.S. 397.68112 Involuntary services; persons who may petition.

(1) If the respondent is an adult, a petition for involuntary treatment services may be filed by the respondent’s spouse or legal guardian, any relative, a service provider, or an adult who has direct personal knowledge of the respondent’s substance abuse impairment and his or her prior course of assessment and treatment. (2) If the respondent is a minor, a petition for involuntary treatment services may be filed by a parent, legal guardian, or service provider. (3) The court may prohibit, or a law enforcement agency may waive, any service of process fees if a petitioner is determined to be indigent.

F.S. 397.68141 Contents of petition for involuntary treatment services.

A petition for involuntary services must contain the name of the respondent; the name of the petitioner; the relationship between the respondent and the petitioner; the name of the respondent’s attorney, if known; and the factual allegations presented by the petitioner establishing the need for involuntary services for substance abuse impairment. (1) The factual allegations must demonstrate: (a) The reason for the petitioner’s belief that the respondent is substance abuse impaired; (b) The reason for the petitioner’s belief that because of such impairment the respondent has lost the power of self-control with respect to substance abuse; and (c)1. The reason the petitioner believes that the respondent has inflicted or is likely to inflict physical harm on himself or herself or others unless the court orders the involuntary services; or 2. The reason the petitioner believes that the respondent’s refusal to voluntarily receive care is based on judgment so impaired by reason of substance abuse that the respondent is incapable of appreciating his or her need for care and of making a rational decision regarding that need for care. (2) The petition may be accompanied by a certificate or report of a qualified professional who examined the respondent within 30 days before the petition was filed. The certificate or report must include the qualified professional’s findings relating to his or her assessment of the patient and his or her treatment recommendations. If the respondent was not assessed before the filing of a treatment petition or refused to submit to an evaluation, the lack of assessment or refusal must be noted in the petition. (3) If there is an emergency, the petition must also describe the respondent’s exigent circumstances and include a request for an ex parte assessment and stabilization order that must be executed pursuant to s. 397.6818.

F.S. 397.68151 Duties of court upon filing of petition for involuntary services.

(1) Upon the filing of a petition for involuntary services for a substance abuse impaired person with the clerk of the court, the court shall immediately determine whether the respondent is represented by an attorney or whether the appointment of counsel for the respondent is appropriate. If the court appoints counsel for the person, the clerk of the court shall immediately notify the office of criminal conflict and civil regional counsel, created pursuant to s. 27.511, of the appointment. The office of criminal conflict and civil regional counsel shall represent the person until the petition is dismissed, the court order expires, the person is discharged from involuntary treatment services, or the office is otherwise discharged by the court. An attorney that represents the person named in the petition shall have access to the person, witnesses, and records relevant to the presentation of the person’s case and shall represent the interests of the person, regardless of the source of payment to the attorney. (2) The court shall schedule a hearing to be held on the petition within 10 court working days unless a continuance is granted. The court may appoint a magistrate to preside at the hearing. (3) A copy of the petition and notice of the hearing must be provided to the respondent; the respondent’s parent, guardian, or legal custodian, in the case of a minor; the respondent’s attorney, if known; the petitioner; the respondent’s spouse or guardian, if applicable; and such other persons as the court may direct. If the respondent is a minor, a copy of the petition and notice of the hearing must be personally delivered to the respondent. The clerk shall also issue a summons to the person whose admission is sought, and, unless a circuit court’s chief judge authorizes disinterested private process servers to serve parties under this chapter, within 6 hours after the summons being issued, the clerk of the court shall electronically submit the summons and, if applicable, a copy of the petition and notice of hearing to a law enforcement agency to effect such service on the person whose admission is sought for the initial treatment hearing.
Source: FL Statutes (Official Site)URL: https://www.flsenate.gov/Laws/Statutes/2025/Chapter397/AllFetched: 7/8/2026
F.S. Ch. 397 — SUBSTANCE ABUSE SERVICES | Florida Statutes — Florida | Corpus