MEDICAL PRACTICE

F.S. Ch. 458
in effect

F.S. 458.301 Purpose.

The Legislature recognizes that the practice of medicine is potentially dangerous to the public if conducted by unsafe and incompetent practitioners. The Legislature finds further that it is difficult for the public to make an informed choice when selecting a physician and that the consequences of a wrong decision could seriously harm the public health and safety. The primary legislative purpose in enacting this chapter is to ensure that every physician practicing in this state meets minimum requirements for safe practice. It is the legislative intent that physicians who fall below minimum competency or who otherwise present a danger to the public shall be prohibited from practicing in this state.

F.S. 458.303 Provisions not applicable to other practitioners; exceptions, etc.

(1) The provisions of ss. 458.301, 458.305, 458.307, 458.309, 458.311, 458.313, 458.315, 458.317, 458.319, 458.321, 458.327, 458.329, 458.331, 458.337, 458.339, 458.341, 458.343, 458.345, 458.347, and this section shall have no application to: (a) Other duly licensed health care practitioners acting within their scope of practice authorized by statute. (b) Any physician lawfully licensed in another state or territory or foreign country, when meeting duly licensed physicians of this state in consultation. (c) Commissioned medical officers of the Armed Forces of the United States and of the Public Health Service of the United States while on active duty and while acting within the scope of their military or public health responsibilities. (d) Any person while actually serving without salary or professional fees on the resident medical staff of a hospital in this state, subject to the provisions of s. 458.321. (e) Any person furnishing medical assistance in case of an emergency. (f) The domestic administration of recognized family remedies. (g) The practice of the religious tenets of any church in this state. (h) Any person or manufacturer who, without the use of drugs or medicine, mechanically fits or sells lenses, artificial eyes or limbs, or other apparatus or appliances or is engaged in the mechanical examination of eyes for the purpose of constructing or adjusting spectacles, eyeglasses, or lenses. (2) Nothing in s. 458.301, s. 458.305, s. 458.307, s. 458.309, s. 458.311, s. 458.313, s. 458.319, s. 458.321, s. 458.327, s. 458.329, s. 458.331, s. 458.337, s. 458.339, s. 458.341, s. 458.343, s. 458.345, s. 458.347, or this section shall be construed to prohibit any service rendered by a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse, if such service is rendered under the direct supervision and control of a licensed physician who provides specific direction for any service to be performed and gives final approval to all services performed. Further, nothing in this or any other chapter shall be construed to prohibit any service rendered by a medical assistant in accordance with the provisions of s. 458.3485.

F.S. 458.305 Definitions.

As used in this chapter: (1) “Board” means the Board of Medicine. (2) “Department” means the Department of Health. (3) “Practice of medicine” means the diagnosis, treatment, operation, or prescription for any human disease, pain, injury, deformity, or other physical or mental condition. (4) “Physician” means a person who is licensed to practice medicine in this state.

F.S. 458.307 Board of Medicine.

(1) There is created within the department the Board of Medicine, composed of 15 members appointed by the Governor and confirmed by the Senate. (2) Twelve members of the board must be licensed physicians in good standing in this state who are residents of the state and who have been engaged in the active practice or teaching of medicine for at least 4 years immediately preceding their appointment. One of the physicians must be on the full-time faculty of a medical school in this state, and one of the physicians must be in private practice and on the full-time staff of a statutory teaching hospital in this state as defined in s. 408.07. At least one of the physicians must be a graduate of a foreign medical school. The remaining three members must be residents of the state who are not, and never have been, licensed health care practitioners. One member must be a health care risk manager. At least one member of the board must be 60 years of age or older. (3) As the terms of the members expire, the Governor shall appoint successors for terms of 4 years, and such members shall serve until their successors are appointed. (4) The board, in conjunction with the department, shall establish a disciplinary training program for board members. The program shall provide for initial and periodic training in the grounds for disciplinary action, the actions which may be taken by the board and the department, changes in relevant statutes and rules, and any relevant judicial and administrative decisions. No member of the board shall participate on probable cause panels or in disciplinary decisions of the board unless he or she has completed the disciplinary training program. (5) During the time members are appointed to a probable cause panel, they shall attempt to complete their work on every case presented to them. In the event that consideration of a case is begun but not completed during the term of those members on the panel, they may reconvene as a probable cause panel for the purpose of completing their deliberations on that case. (6) All provisions of chapter 456 relating to activities of the board shall apply.

F.S. 458.309 Rulemaking authority.

(1) The board has authority to adopt rules pursuant to ss. 120.536(1) and 120.54 to implement the provisions of this chapter conferring duties upon it. (2)(a) Any rules which the board adopts relating to the classroom phase of medical education shall not apply to any person who is enrolled in the classroom phase of medical education or has graduated prior to or at the time the rule becomes effective, so long as such person does not interrupt his or her medical education. (b)1. Any rules which the board adopts relating to the clinical clerkship phase of medical education shall not apply to any person who is enrolled in the clinical clerkship phase of medical education prior to or at the time the rule becomes effective, so long as such person does not interrupt his or her medical education. 2. Rules adopted by the Florida Board of Medical Examiners prior to October 1, 1986, and relating to clinical clerkships for graduates of foreign medical schools do not apply to any such graduate who: a. Had completed a clinical clerkship prior to the effective date of the rule; or b. Had begun a clinical clerkship but had not completed the clinical clerkship prior to the effective date of the rule, so long as the clinical clerkship took no longer than 3 years to complete. (c) Any rules which the board adopts relating to residency shall not apply to any person who has begun his or her residency prior to or at the time the rule becomes effective, so long as such person does not interrupt the residency.

F.S. 458.310 Restricted licenses.

(1) It is the intent of the Legislature to provide medical services to all the residents of this state at an affordable cost. (2) The Board of Medicine may, by rule, develop criteria and, without examination, issue restricted licenses annually to up to 100 persons to practice medicine in this state who: (a) Meet the requirements of s. 458.311; (b) Show evidence of the active licensed practice of medicine in another jurisdiction for at least 2 years of the immediately preceding 4 years, or completion of board-approved postgraduate training within the year preceding the filing of an application; and (c) Enter into a contract to practice for a period of 24 months solely in the employ of the state or a federally funded community health center or migrant health center, at the current salary level for that position. The Board of Medicine shall designate areas of critical need in the state where these restricted licensees may practice. (3) Before the end of the 24-month practice period, the physician must take and successfully complete the licensure examination. (4) If the restricted licensee breaches the terms of the employment contract, he or she may not be licensed as a physician in this state under any licensing provisions.

F.S. 458.311 Licensure by examination; requirements; fees.

(1) Any person desiring to be licensed as a physician, who does not hold a valid license in any state, shall apply to the department on forms furnished by the department. The department shall license each applicant who the board certifies: (a) Has completed the application form and remitted a nonrefundable application fee not to exceed $500. (b) Is at least 21 years of age. (c) Is of good moral character. (d) Has not committed any act or offense in this or any other jurisdiction which would constitute the basis for disciplining a physician pursuant to s. 458.331. (e) For any applicant who has graduated from medical school after October 1, 1992, has completed the equivalent of 2 academic years of preprofessional, postsecondary education, as determined by rule of the board, which shall include, at a minimum, courses in such fields as anatomy, biology, and chemistry prior to entering medical school. (f) Meets one of the following medical education and postgraduate training requirements: 1.a. Is a graduate of an allopathic medical school or allopathic college recognized and approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the United States Office of Education or is a graduate of an allopathic medical school or allopathic college within a territorial jurisdiction of the United States recognized by the accrediting agency of the governmental body of that jurisdiction; b. If the language of instruction of the medical school is other than English, has demonstrated competency in English through presentation of a satisfactory grade on the Test of Spoken English of the Educational Testing Service or a similar test approved by rule of the board; and c. Has completed an approved residency of at least 1 year. 2.a. Is a graduate of an allopathic foreign medical school registered with the World Health Organization and certified pursuant to s. 458.314 as having met the standards required to accredit medical schools in the United States or reasonably comparable standards; b. If the language of instruction of the foreign medical school is other than English, has demonstrated competency in English through presentation of the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates English proficiency certificate or by a satisfactory grade on the Test of Spoken English of the Educational Testing Service or a similar test approved by rule of the board; and c. Has completed an approved residency of at least 1 year. 3.a. Is a graduate of an allopathic foreign medical school which has not been certified pursuant to s. 458.314 and has not been excluded from consideration under s. 458.314(8); b. Has had his or her medical credentials evaluated by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates, holds an active, valid certificate issued by that commission, and has passed the examination utilized by that commission; and c. Has completed an approved residency of at least 1 year; however, after October 1, 1992, the applicant shall have completed an approved residency or fellowship of at least 2 years in one specialty area. However, to be acceptable, the fellowship experience and training must be counted toward regular or subspecialty certification by a board recognized and certified by the American Board of Medical Specialties. (g) Has submitted to the department a set of fingerprints on a form and under procedures specified by the department, along with a payment in an amount equal to the costs incurred by the Department of Health for the criminal background check of the applicant. (h) Has obtained a passing score, as established by rule of the board, on the licensure examination of the United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE); or a combination of the United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE), the examination of the Federation of State Medical Boards of the United States, Inc. (FLEX), or the examination of the National Board of Medical Examiners up to the year 2000; or for the purpose of examination of any applicant who was licensed on the basis of a state board examination and who is currently licensed in at least one other jurisdiction of the United States or Canada, and who has practiced pursuant to such licensure for a period of at least 10 years, use of the Special Purpose Examination of the Federation of State Medical Boards of the United States (SPEX) upon receipt of a passing score as established by rule of the board. However, for the purpose of examination of any applicant who was licensed on the basis of a state board examination prior to 1974, who is currently licensed in at least three other jurisdictions of the United States or Canada, and who has practiced pursuant to such licensure for a period of at least 20 years, this paragraph does not apply. (2) As prescribed by board rule, the board may require an applicant who does not pass the national licensing examination after five attempts to complete additional remedial education or training. The board shall prescribe the additional requirements in a manner that permits the applicant to complete the requirements and be reexamined within 2 years after the date the applicant petitions the board to retake the examination a sixth or subsequent time. (3) Notwithstanding subparagraph (1)(f)3., a graduate of a foreign medical school that has not been excluded from consideration under s. 458.314(8) need not present the certificate issued by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates or pass the examination utilized by that commission if the graduate: (a) Has received a bachelor’s degree from an accredited United States college or university. (b) Has studied at a medical school which is recognized by the World Health Organization. (c) Has completed all of the formal requirements of the foreign medical school, except the internship or social service requirements, and has passed part I of the National Board of Medical Examiners examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates examination equivalent. (d) Has completed an academic year of supervised clinical training in a hospital affiliated with a medical school approved by the Council on Medical Education of the American Medical Association and upon completion has passed part II of the National Board of Medical Examiners examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates examination equivalent. (4) The department and the board shall assure that applicants for licensure meet the criteria in subsection (1) through an investigative process. When the investigative process is not completed within the time set out in s. 120.60(1) and the department or board has reason to believe that the applicant does not meet the criteria, the State Surgeon General or the State Surgeon General’s designee may issue a 90-day licensure delay which shall be in writing and sufficient to notify the applicant of the reason for the delay. The provisions of this subsection shall control over any conflicting provisions of s. 120.60(1). (5) The board may not certify to the department for licensure any applicant who is under investigation in another jurisdiction for an offense which would constitute a violation of this chapter until such investigation is completed. Upon completion of the investigation, the provisions of s. 458.331 shall apply. Furthermore, the department may not issue an unrestricted license to any individual who has committed any act or offense in any jurisdiction which would constitute the basis for disciplining a physician pursuant to s. 458.331. When the board finds that an individual has committed an act or offense in any jurisdiction which would constitute the basis for disciplining a physician pursuant to s. 458.331, then the board may enter an order imposing one or more of the terms set forth in subsection (8). (6) Each applicant who meets the requirements of this chapter shall be licensed as a physician, with rights as defined by law. (7) Upon certification by the board, the department shall impose conditions, limitations, or restrictions on a license if the applicant is on probation in another jurisdiction for an act which would constitute a violation of this chapter. (8) When the board determines that any applicant for licensure has failed to meet, to the board’s satisfaction, each of the appropriate requirements set forth in this section, it may enter an order requiring one or more of the following terms: (a) Refusal to certify to the department an application for licensure, certification, or registration; (b) Certification to the department of an application for licensure, certification, or registration with restrictions on the scope of practice of the licensee; (c) Certification to the department of an application for licensure, certification, or registration with placement of the physician on probation for a period of time and subject to such conditions as the board may specify, including, but not limited to, requiring the physician to submit to treatment, attend continuing education courses, submit to reexamination, or work under the supervision of another physician; (d) Certification to the department of a person desiring to be licensed as a physician under this section who has held an active medical faculty certificate under s. 458.3145 for at least 3 years and has held a full-time faculty appointment for at least 3 consecutive years to teach in a program of medicine listed under s. 458.3145(1)(i); or (e) Certification to the department of an application for licensure submitted by a graduate of a foreign medical school that has not been excluded from consideration under s. 458.314(8) if the graduate has not completed an approved residency under sub-subparagraph (1)(f)2.c. or sub-subparagraph (1)(f)3.c. but meets the following criteria: 1. Has an active, unencumbered license to practice medicine in a foreign country; 2. Has actively practiced medicine during the entire 4-year period preceding the date of the submission of a licensure application; 3. Has completed a residency or substantially similar postgraduate medical training in a country recognized by his or her licensing jurisdiction which is substantially similar to a residency program accredited by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, as determined by the board; 4. Has had his or her medical credentials evaluated by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates, holds an active, valid certificate issued by that commission, and has passed the examination used by that commission; and 5. Has an offer for full-time employment as a physician from a health care provider that operates in this state. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term “health care provider” means a health care professional, health care facility, or entity licensed or certified to provide health services in this state as recognized by the board. An applicant who is not certified for unrestricted licensure under this paragraph may be certified by the board under paragraph (b) or paragraph (c), as applicable. A physician licensed after receiving certification under this paragraph must maintain his or her employment with the original employer or with another health care provider that operates in this state, at a location within this state, for at least 2 consecutive years after licensure, in accordance with rules adopted by the board. Such physician must notify the board within 5 business days after any change of employer.

F.S. 458.313 Licensure by endorsement; requirements; fees.

The department shall issue a license by endorsement to any applicant who, upon applying to the department on forms furnished by the department and remitting a fee set by the board in an amount not to exceed $500, the board certifies has: (1) Met the requirements for licensure by endorsement under s. 456.0145; or (2) Met the requirements for licensure by endorsement under s. 456.0145 except for s. 456.0145(2)(a)4. but has submitted evidence to the board’s satisfaction of the successful completion of either a board-approved postgraduate training program within 2 years preceding the filing of an application or a board-approved clinical competency examination within the year preceding the filing of an application.

F.S. 458.314 Certification of foreign educational institutions.

(1) The Legislature recognizes the need to ensure that graduates of foreign medical schools who have received an education which is reasonably comparable to that of similar accredited institutions in the United States and which adequately prepares its students for the practice of medicine shall be subject to the same licensure requirements as graduates of accredited medical schools or colleges. It is the purpose of this section to provide for the evaluation of foreign medical schools and the certification of those foreign medical schools which provide an education which is reasonably comparable to that of similar accredited institutions in the United States and which adequately prepares its students for the practice of medicine. (2) The department shall be responsible for the certification of foreign medical schools based on standards established pursuant to subsection (4). The department may contract with outside consultants or a national professional organization to survey and evaluate foreign medical schools. Such consultant or organization shall report to the department regarding its findings in the survey and evaluation. (3) The department shall establish a technical advisory group to review and comment upon the survey and evaluation of a foreign medical school contracted for by the department pursuant to subsection (2) prior to any final action by the department regarding certification of the foreign medical school. The technical advisory group shall be selected by the department and shall consist of four physicians, two of whom shall be selected from a list of five recognized United States medical educators recommended by the foreign school seeking certification. None of the members of the technical advisory group shall be affiliated with the school seeking certification. (4) Any foreign medical school which wishes to be certified pursuant to this section shall make application to the department for such certification, which shall be based upon a finding that the educational program of the foreign medical school is reasonably comparable to that of similar accredited institutions in the United States and adequately prepares its students for the practice of medicine. Curriculum, faculty qualifications, student attendance, plant and facilities, and other relevant factors shall be reviewed and evaluated. The board with the cooperation of the department shall identify, by rule, the standards and review procedures and methodology to be used in the certification process consistent with this subsection. The department shall not grant certification if deficiencies found are of such magnitude as to prevent the students in the school from receiving an educational base suitable for the practice of medicine. (5) Periodic surveys and evaluations of all certified schools shall be made to ensure continued compliance with this section. Certification shall include provisional and full certification. The provisional form of certification shall be for a period determined by the department not to exceed 3 years and shall be granted to an institution, in accordance with rule, to provide reasonable time for the school seeking permanent certification to overcome deficiencies found by the department. Prior to the expiration of a provisional certification and before the full certification is granted, the school shall be required to submit evidence that deficiencies noted at the time of initial application have been remedied. A school granted full certification shall provide evidence of continued compliance with this section. In the event that the department denies certification or recertification, the department shall give the school a specific listing of deficiencies which caused the department to disapprove it and what the department will require for compliance and shall permit the school, upon request, to demonstrate by satisfactory evidence, within 90 days, that it has remedied the deficiencies enumerated by the department. (6) A school shall pay a registration fee established by rule of the department, not to exceed $1,000, at the time of application for certification and shall pay all reasonable costs and expenses the department expects to incur, in an amount not to exceed $40,000, for the conduct of the certification survey. (7) The department shall renew a certification upon receipt of a renewal application from an institution and a fee not to exceed $500. Each fully certified institution shall provide a renewal application every 7 years. Any certification which is not renewed shall expire. (8) If a foreign medical school does not seek certification under this section, the board may, at its discretion, exclude the foreign medical school from consideration as an institution that provides medical education that is reasonably comparable to that of similar accredited institutions in the United States and that adequately prepares its students for the practice of medicine in this state. However, a license or medical faculty certificate issued to a physician under this chapter before July 1, 2024, is not affected by this subsection.

F.S. 458.315 Temporary certificate for practice in areas of critical need.

1 (1) A physician licensed to practice in any jurisdiction of the United States whose license is currently valid may be issued a temporary certificate for practice in areas of critical need. A physician seeking such certificate must pay an application fee of $300. A physician assistant licensed to practice in any state of the United States or the District of Columbia whose license is currently valid may be issued a temporary certificate for practice in areas of critical need. (2) A temporary certificate may be issued under this section to a physician or physician assistant who will: (a) Practice in an area of critical need; (b) Be employed by or practice in a county health department; correctional facility; Department of Veterans’ Affairs clinic; community health center funded by s. 329, s. 330, or s. 340 of the United States Public Health Services Act; or other agency or institution that is approved by the State Surgeon General and provides health care services to meet the needs of underserved populations in this state; or (c) Practice for a limited time to address critical physician-specialty, demographic, or geographic needs for this state’s physician workforce as determined by the State Surgeon General. (3) The board may issue a temporary certificate under this section subject to the following restrictions: (a) The State Surgeon General shall determine the areas of critical need. Such areas include, but are not limited to, health professional shortage areas designated by the United States Department of Health and Human Services. 1. A recipient of a temporary certificate for practice in areas of critical need may use the certificate to work for any approved entity in any area of critical need or as authorized by the State Surgeon General. 2. The recipient of a temporary certificate for practice in areas of critical need shall, within 30 days after accepting employment, notify the board of all approved institutions in which the licensee practices and of all approved institutions where practice privileges have been denied, as applicable. (b) The board may administer an abbreviated oral examination to determine the physician’s or physician assistant’s competency, but a written regular examination is not required. Within 60 days after receipt of an application for a temporary certificate, the board shall review the application and issue the temporary certificate, notify the applicant of denial, or notify the applicant that the board recommends additional assessment, training, education, or other requirements as a condition of certification. If the applicant has not actively practiced during the 3-year period immediately preceding the application and the board determines that the applicant may lack clinical competency, possess diminished or inadequate skills, lack necessary medical knowledge, or exhibit patterns of deficits in clinical decisionmaking, the board may: 1. Deny the application; 2. Issue a temporary certificate having reasonable restrictions that may include, but are not limited to, a requirement for the applicant to practice under the supervision of a physician approved by the board; or 3. Issue a temporary certificate upon receipt of documentation confirming that the applicant has met any reasonable conditions of the board which may include, but are not limited to, completing continuing education or undergoing an assessment of skills and training. (c) Any certificate issued under this section is valid only so long as the State Surgeon General determines that the reason for which it was issued remains a critical need to the state. The board shall review each temporary certificateholder at least annually to ascertain that the certificateholder is complying with the minimum requirements of the Medical Practice Act and its adopted rules, as applicable to the certificateholder. If it is determined that the certificateholder is not meeting such minimum requirements, the board must revoke such certificate or impose restrictions or conditions, or both, as a condition of continued practice under the certificate. (d) The board may not issue a temporary certificate for practice in an area of critical need to any physician or physician assistant who is under investigation in any jurisdiction in the United States for an act that would constitute a violation of this chapter until such time as the investigation is complete, at which time s. 458.331 applies. (4) The application fee and all licensure fees, including neurological injury compensation assessments, are waived for those persons obtaining a temporary certificate to practice in areas of critical need for the purpose of providing volunteer, uncompensated care for low-income residents. The applicant must submit an affidavit from the employing agency or institution stating that the physician or physician assistant will not receive any compensation for any health care services provided by the applicant.

F.S. 458.316 Public health certificate.

(1) Any person desiring to obtain a public health certificate shall submit an application fee not to exceed $300 and shall demonstrate to the board that he or she is a graduate of an accredited medical school and holds a master of public health degree or is board eligible or certified in public health or preventive medicine, or is licensed to practice medicine without restriction in another jurisdiction in the United States and holds a master of public health degree or is board eligible or certified in public health or preventive medicine, and shall meet the requirements in s. 458.311(1)(a)-(g) and (5). (2) Such certificate shall be issued pursuant to the following conditions: (a) The certificate shall authorize the holder to practice only in conjunction with his or her employment duties with the Department of Health and shall automatically expire when the holder’s relationship with the department is terminated. (b) The certificate is subject to biennial renewal and shall be renewable only if the State Surgeon General recommends in writing that the certificate be renewed.

F.S. 458.317 Limited licenses.

(1) PHYSICIANS LICENSED IN UNITED STATES JURISDICTIONS. — (a) Any person desiring to obtain a limited license under this subsection shall submit to the board an application and fee not to exceed $300 and demonstrate that he or she has been licensed to practice medicine in any jurisdiction in the United States for at least 10 years and intends to practice only pursuant to the restrictions of a limited license granted pursuant to this subsection. However, a physician who is not fully retired in all jurisdictions may use a limited license only for noncompensated practice. If the person applying for a limited license submits a statement from the employing agency or institution stating that he or she will not receive compensation for any service involving the practice of medicine, the application fee and all licensure fees shall be waived. However, any person who receives a waiver of fees for a limited license shall pay such fees if the person receives compensation for the practice of medicine. (b) If it has been more than 3 years since active practice was conducted by the applicant, the full-time director of the county health department or a licensed physician, approved by the board, must supervise the applicant for a period of 6 months after he or she is granted a limited license under this subsection, unless the board determines that a shorter period of supervision will be sufficient to ensure that the applicant is qualified for licensure. Procedures for such supervision must be established by the board. (c) The recipient of a limited license under this subsection may practice only in the employ of public agencies or institutions or nonprofit agencies or institutions meeting the requirements of s. 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, which agencies or institutions are located in the areas of critical medical need as determined by the board. Determination of medically underserved areas shall be made by the board after consultation with the department and statewide medical organizations; however, such determination shall include, but not be limited to, health professional shortage areas designated by the United States Department of Health and Human Services. A recipient of a limited license under this subsection may use the license to work for any approved employer in any area of critical need approved by the board. (d) The recipient of a limited license shall, within 30 days after accepting employment, notify the board of all approved institutions in which the licensee practices and of all approved institutions where practice privileges have been denied. (e) This subsection does not limit any policy by the board, otherwise authorized by law, to grant licenses to physicians duly licensed in other states under conditions less restrictive than the requirements of this subsection. Notwithstanding the other provisions of this subsection, the board may refuse to authorize a physician otherwise qualified to practice in the employ of any agency or institution otherwise qualified if the agency or institution has caused or permitted violations of the provisions of this chapter which it knew or should have known were occurring. (f) The board shall notify the director of the full-time local county health department of any county in which a licensee intends to practice under this subsection. The director of the full-time county health department shall assist in the supervision of any licensee within the county and shall notify the board if he or she becomes aware of any actions by the licensee which would be grounds for revocation of the limited license. The board shall establish procedures for such supervision. (g) The board shall review the practice of each licensee biennially to verify compliance with the restrictions prescribed in this subsection and other applicable provisions of this chapter. (h) Any person holding an active license to practice medicine in this state may convert that license to a limited license under this subsection for the purpose of providing volunteer, uncompensated care for low-income Floridians. The applicant must submit a statement from the employing agency or institution stating that he or she will not receive compensation for any service involving the practice of medicine. The application fee and all licensure fees, including neurological injury compensation assessments, are waived for such applicant. (2) GRADUATE ASSISTANT PHYSICIANS. — A graduate assistant physician is a medical school graduate who meets the requirements of this subsection and has obtained a limited license from the board for the purpose of practicing temporarily under the direct supervision of a physician who has a full, active, and unencumbered license issued under this chapter, pending the graduate’s entrance into a residency under the National Resident Match Program. (a) Any person desiring to obtain a limited license as a graduate assistant physician must submit to the board an application and demonstrate that he or she meets all of the following criteria: 1. Is a graduate of an allopathic medical school or allopathic college approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education. 2. Has successfully passed all parts of the United States Medical Licensing Examination. 3. Has not received and accepted a residency match from the National Resident Match Program within the first year following graduation from medical school. (b) The board shall issue a graduate assistant physician limited license for a duration of 2 years to an applicant who meets the requirements of paragraph (a) and all of the following criteria: 1. Is at least 21 years of age. 2. Is of good moral character. 3. Submits documentation that the applicant has agreed to enter into a written protocol drafted by a physician with a full, active, and unencumbered license issued under this chapter upon the board’s issuance of a limited license to the applicant and submits a copy of the protocol. The board shall establish by rule specific provisions that must be included in a physician-drafted protocol. 4. Has not committed any act or offense in this or any other jurisdiction which would constitute the basis for disciplining a physician under s. 458.331. 5. Has submitted to the department a set of fingerprints on a form and under procedures specified by the department. 6. The board may not certify to the department for limited licensure under this subsection any applicant who is under investigation in another jurisdiction for an offense which would constitute a violation of this chapter or chapter 456 until such investigation is completed. Upon completion of the investigation, s. 458.331 applies. Furthermore, the department may not issue a limited license to any individual who has committed any act or offense in any jurisdiction which would constitute the basis for disciplining a physician under s. 458.331. If the board finds that an individual has committed an act or offense in any jurisdiction which would constitute the basis for disciplining a physician under s. 458.331, the board may enter an order imposing one of the following terms: a. Refusal to certify to the department an application for a graduate assistant physician limited license; or b. Certification to the department of an application for a graduate assistant physician limited license with restrictions on the scope of practice of the licensee. (c) A graduate assistant physician limited licensee may apply for a one-time renewal of his or her limited license by submitting a board-approved application, documentation of actual practice under the required protocol during the initial limited licensure period, and documentation of applications he or she has submitted for accredited graduate medical education training programs. The one-time renewal terminates after 1 year. A graduate assistant physician who has received a limited license under this subsection is not eligible to apply for another limited license, regardless of whether he or she received a one-time renewal under this paragraph. (d) A limited licensed graduate assistant physician may provide health care services only under the direct supervision of a physician with a full, active, and unencumbered license issued under this chapter. (e) A physician must be approved by the board to supervise a limited licensed graduate assistant physician. (f) A physician may supervise no more than two graduate assistant physicians with limited licenses. (g) Supervision of limited licensed graduate assistant physicians requires the physical presence of the supervising physician at the location where the services are rendered. (h) A physician-drafted protocol must specify the duties and responsibilities of the limited licensed graduate assistant physician according to criteria adopted by board rule. (i) Each protocol that applies to a limited licensed graduate assistant physician and his or her supervising physician must ensure that: 1. There is a process for the evaluation of the limited licensed graduate assistant physicians’ performance; and 2. The delegation of any medical task or procedure is within the supervising physician’s scope of practice and appropriate for the graduate assistant physician’s level of competency. (j) A limited licensed graduate assistant physician’s prescriptive authority is governed by the physician-drafted protocol and criteria adopted by the board and may not exceed that of his or her supervising physician. Any prescriptions and orders issued by the graduate assistant physician must identify both the graduate assistant physician and the supervising physician. (k) A physician who supervises a graduate assistant physician is liable for any acts or omissions of the graduate assistant physician acting under the physician’s supervision and control. Third-party payors may reimburse employers of graduate assistant physicians for covered services rendered by graduate assistant physicians. (3) RULES. — The board may adopt rules to implement this section.

F.S. 458.319 Renewal of license.

(1) The department shall renew a license upon receipt of the renewal application, evidence that the applicant has actively practiced medicine or has been on the active teaching faculty of an accredited medical school for at least 2 years of the immediately preceding 4 years, and a fee not to exceed $500; provided, however, that if the licensee is either a resident physician, assistant resident physician, fellow, house physician, or intern in an approved postgraduate training program, as defined by the board by rule, the fee shall not exceed $100 per annum. If the licensee has not actively practiced medicine for at least 2 years of the immediately preceding 4 years, the board shall require that the licensee successfully complete a board-approved clinical competency examination prior to renewal of the license. “Actively practiced medicine” means that practice of medicine by physicians, including those employed by any governmental entity in community or public health, as defined by this chapter, including physicians practicing administrative medicine. An applicant for a renewed license must also submit the information required under s. 456.039 to the department on a form and under procedures specified by the department, along with payment in an amount equal to the costs incurred by the Department of Health for the statewide criminal background check of the applicant. The applicant must submit a set of fingerprints to the Department of Health on a form and under procedures specified by the department, along with payment in an amount equal to the costs incurred by the department for a national criminal background check of the applicant for the initial renewal of his or her license after January 1, 2000. If the applicant fails to submit either the information required under s. 456.039 or a set of fingerprints to the department as required by this section, the department shall issue a notice of noncompliance, and the applicant will be given 30 additional days to comply. If the applicant fails to comply within 30 days after the notice of noncompliance is issued, the department or board, as appropriate, may issue a citation to the applicant and may fine the applicant up to $50 for each day that the applicant is not in compliance with the requirements of s. 456.039. The citation must clearly state that the applicant may choose, in lieu of accepting the citation, to follow the procedure under s. 456.073. If the applicant disputes the matter in the citation, the procedures set forth in s. 456.073 must be followed. However, if the applicant does not dispute the matter in the citation with the department within 30 days after the citation is served, the citation becomes a final order and constitutes discipline. Service of a citation may be made by personal service or certified mail, restricted delivery, to the subject at the applicant’s last known address. If an applicant has submitted fingerprints to the department for a national criminal history check upon initial licensure and is renewing his or her license for the first time, then the applicant need only submit the information and fee required for a statewide criminal history check. (2) The department shall adopt rules establishing a procedure for the biennial renewal of licenses. (3) The licensee must have on file with the department the address of his or her primary place of practice within this state prior to engaging in that practice. Prior to changing the address of the primary place of practice, whether or not within this state, the licensee shall notify the department of the address of the new primary place of practice. (4)(a) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter or chapter 456, the requirements for the biennial renewal of the license of any licensee who is a member of the Legislature shall stand continued and extended without the requirement of any filing by such a licensee of any notice or application for renewal with the board or the department and such licensee’s license shall be an active status license under this chapter, throughout the period that the licensee is a member of the Legislature and for a period of 60 days after the licensee ceases to be a member of the Legislature. (b) At any time during the licensee’s legislative term of office and during the period of 60 days after the licensee ceases to be a member of the Legislature, the licensee may file a completed renewal application that shall consist solely of: 1. A license renewal fee of $250 for each year the licensee’s license renewal has been continued and extended pursuant to the terms of this subsection since the last otherwise regularly scheduled biennial renewal year and each year during which the renewed license shall be effective until the next regularly scheduled biennial renewal date; 2. Documentation of the completion by the licensee of 10 hours of continuing medical education credits for each year from the effective date of the last renewed license for the licensee until the year in which the application is filed; and 3. The information from the licensee expressly required in s. 456.039(1)(a)1.-8. and (b), and (4)(a), (b), and (c). (c) The department and board may not impose any additional requirements for the renewal of such licenses and, not later than 20 days after receipt of a completed application as specified in paragraph (b), shall renew the active status license of the licensee, effective on and retroactive to the last previous renewal date of the licensee’s license. This license renewal shall be valid until the next regularly scheduled biennial renewal date for such license, and thereafter shall be subject to the biennial requirements for renewal in this chapter and chapter 456.

F.S. 458.320 Financial responsibility.

(1) As a condition of licensing and maintaining an active license, and prior to the issuance or renewal of an active license or reactivation of an inactive license for the practice of medicine, an applicant must by one of the following methods demonstrate to the satisfaction of the board and the department financial responsibility to pay claims and costs ancillary thereto arising out of the rendering of, or the failure to render, medical care or services: (a) Establishing and maintaining an escrow account consisting of cash or assets eligible for deposit in accordance with s. 625.52 in the per claim amounts specified in paragraph (b). The required escrow amount set forth in this paragraph may not be used for litigation costs or attorney’s fees for the defense of any medical malpractice claim. (b) Obtaining and maintaining professional liability coverage in an amount not less than $100,000 per claim, with a minimum annual aggregate of not less than $300,000, from an authorized insurer as defined under s. 624.09, from a surplus lines insurer as defined under s. 626.914(2), from a risk retention group as defined under s. 627.942, from the Joint Underwriting Association established under s. 627.351(4), or through a plan of self-insurance as provided in s. 627.357. The required coverage amount set forth in this paragraph may not be used for litigation costs or attorney’s fees for the defense of any medical malpractice claim. (c) Obtaining and maintaining an unexpired, irrevocable letter of credit, established pursuant to chapter 675, in an amount not less than $100,000 per claim, with a minimum aggregate availability of credit of not less than $300,000. The letter of credit must be payable to the physician as beneficiary upon presentment of a final judgment indicating liability and awarding damages to be paid by the physician or upon presentment of a settlement agreement signed by all parties to such agreement when such final judgment or settlement is a result of a claim arising out of the rendering of, or the failure to render, medical care and services. The letter of credit may not be used for litigation costs or attorney’s fees for the defense of any medical malpractice claim. The letter of credit must be nonassignable and nontransferable. Such letter of credit must be issued by any bank or savings association organized and existing under the laws of this state or any bank or savings association organized under the laws of the United States which has its principal place of business in this state or has a branch office that is authorized under the laws of this state or of the United States to receive deposits in this state. (2) Physicians who perform surgery in an ambulatory surgical center licensed under chapter 395 and, as a continuing condition of hospital staff privileges, physicians who have staff privileges must also establish financial responsibility by one of the following methods: (a) Establishing and maintaining an escrow account consisting of cash or assets eligible for deposit in accordance with s. 625.52 in the per claim amounts specified in paragraph (b). The required escrow amount set forth in this paragraph may not be used for litigation costs or attorney’s fees for the defense of any medical malpractice claim. (b) Obtaining and maintaining professional liability coverage in an amount not less than $250,000 per claim, with a minimum annual aggregate of not less than $750,000 from an authorized insurer as defined under s. 624.09, from a surplus lines insurer as defined under s. 626.914(2), from a risk retention group as defined under s. 627.942, from the Joint Underwriting Association established under s. 627.351(4), through a plan of self-insurance as provided in s. 627.357, or through a plan of self-insurance which meets the conditions specified for satisfying financial responsibility in s. 766.110. The required coverage amount set forth in this paragraph may not be used for litigation costs or attorney’s fees for the defense of any medical malpractice claim. (c) Obtaining and maintaining an unexpired irrevocable letter of credit, established pursuant to chapter 675, in an amount not less than $250,000 per claim, with a minimum aggregate availability of credit of not less than $750,000. The letter of credit must be payable to the physician as beneficiary upon presentment of a final judgment indicating liability and awarding damages to be paid by the physician or upon presentment of a settlement agreement signed by all parties to such agreement when such final judgment or settlement is a result of a claim arising out of the rendering of, or the failure to render, medical care and services. The letter of credit may not be used for litigation costs or attorney’s fees for the defense of any medical malpractice claim. The letter of credit must be nonassignable and nontransferable. The letter of credit must be issued by any bank or savings association organized and existing under the laws of this state or any bank or savings association organized under the laws of the United States which has its principal place of business in this state or has a branch office that is authorized under the laws of this state or of the United States to receive deposits in this state. This subsection shall be inclusive of the coverage in subsection (1). (3)(a) Meeting the financial responsibility requirements of this section or the criteria for any exemption from such requirements must be established at the time of issuance or renewal of a license. (b) Any person may, at any time, submit to the department a request for an advisory opinion regarding such person’s qualifications for exemption. (4)(a) Each insurer, self-insurer, risk retention group, or Joint Underwriting Association must promptly notify the department of cancellation or nonrenewal of insurance required by this section. Unless the physician demonstrates that he or she is otherwise in compliance with the requirements of this section, the department shall suspend the license of the physician pursuant to ss. 120.569 and 120.57 and notify all health care facilities licensed under chapter 395 of such action. Any suspension under this subsection remains in effect until the physician demonstrates compliance with the requirements of this section. If any judgments or settlements are pending at the time of suspension, those judgments or settlements must be paid in accordance with this section unless otherwise mutually agreed to in writing by the parties. This paragraph does not abrogate a judgment debtor’s obligation to satisfy the entire amount of any judgment. (b) If financial responsibility requirements are met by maintaining an escrow account or letter of credit as provided in this section, upon the entry of an adverse final judgment arising from a medical malpractice arbitration award, from a claim of medical malpractice either in contract or tort, or from noncompliance with the terms of a settlement agreement arising from a claim of medical malpractice either in contract or tort, the licensee shall pay the entire amount of the judgment together with all accrued interest, or the amount maintained in the escrow account or provided in the letter of credit as required by this section, whichever is less, within 60 days after the date such judgment became final and subject to execution, unless otherwise mutually agreed to in writing by the parties. If timely payment is not made by the physician, the department shall suspend the license of the physician pursuant to procedures set forth in subparagraphs (5)(g)3., 4., and 5. Nothing in this paragraph shall abrogate a judgment debtor’s obligation to satisfy the entire amount of any judgment. (5) The requirements of subsections (1), (2), and (3) do not apply to: (a) Any person licensed under this chapter who practices medicine exclusively as an officer, employee, or agent of the Federal Government or of the state or its agencies or its subdivisions. For the purposes of this subsection, an agent of the state, its agencies, or its subdivisions is a person who is eligible for coverage under any self-insurance or insurance program authorized by the provisions of s. 768.28(16). (b) Any person whose license has become inactive under this chapter and who is not practicing medicine in this state. Any person applying for reactivation of a license must show either that such licensee maintained tail insurance coverage which provided liability coverage for incidents that occurred on or after January 1, 1987, or the initial date of licensure in this state, whichever is later, and incidents that occurred before the date on which the license became inactive; or such licensee must submit an affidavit stating that such licensee has no unsatisfied medical malpractice judgments or settlements at the time of application for reactivation. (c) Any person holding a limited license pursuant to s. 458.317 and practicing under the scope of such limited license. (d) Any person licensed or certified under this chapter who practices only in conjunction with his or her teaching duties at an accredited medical school or in its main teaching hospitals. Such person may engage in the practice of medicine to the extent that such practice is incidental to and a necessary part of duties in connection with the teaching position in the medical school. (e) Any person holding an active license under this chapter who is not practicing medicine in this state. If such person initiates or resumes any practice of medicine in this state, he or she must notify the department of such activity and fulfill the financial responsibility requirements of this section before resuming the practice of medicine in this state. (f) Any person holding an active license under this chapter who meets all of the following criteria: 1. The licensee has held an active license to practice in this state or another state or some combination thereof for more than 15 years. 2. The licensee has either retired from the practice of medicine or maintains a part-time practice of no more than 1,000 patient contact hours per year. 3. The licensee has had no more than two claims for medical malpractice resulting in an indemnity exceeding $25,000 within the previous 5-year period. 4. The licensee has not been convicted of, or pled guilty or nolo contendere to, any criminal violation specified in this chapter or the medical practice act of any other state. 5. The licensee has not been subject within the last 10 years of practice to license revocation or suspension for any period of time; probation for a period of 3 years or longer; or a fine of $500 or more for a violation of this chapter or the medical practice act of another jurisdiction. The regulatory agency’s acceptance of a physician’s relinquishment of a license, stipulation, consent order, or other settlement, offered in response to or in anticipation of the filing of administrative charges against the physician’s license, constitutes action against the physician’s license for the purposes of this paragraph. 6. The licensee has submitted a form supplying necessary information as required by the department and an affidavit affirming compliance with this paragraph. 7. The licensee must submit biennially to the department certification stating compliance with the provisions of this paragraph. The licensee must, upon request, demonstrate to the department information verifying compliance with this paragraph. A licensee who meets the requirements of this paragraph must post notice in the form of a sign prominently displayed in the reception area and clearly noticeable by all patients or provide a written statement to any person to whom medical services are being provided. The sign or statement must read as follows: “Under Florida law, physicians are generally required to carry medical malpractice insurance or otherwise demonstrate financial responsibility to cover potential claims for medical malpractice. However, certain part-time physicians who meet state requirements are exempt from the financial responsibility law. YOUR DOCTOR MEETS THESE REQUIREMENTS AND HAS DECIDED NOT TO CARRY MEDICAL MALPRACTICE INSURANCE. This notice is provided pursuant to Florida law.” (g) Any person holding an active license under this chapter who agrees to meet all of the following criteria: 1. Upon the entry of an adverse final judgment arising from a medical malpractice arbitration award, from a claim of medical malpractice either in contract or tort, or from noncompliance with the terms of a settlement agreement arising from a claim of medical malpractice either in contract or tort, the licensee shall pay the judgment creditor the lesser of the entire amount of the judgment with all accrued interest or either $100,000, if the physician is licensed pursuant to this chapter but does not maintain hospital staff privileges, or $250,000, if the physician is licensed pursuant to this chapter and maintains hospital staff privileges, within 60 days after the date such judgment became final and subject to execution, unless otherwise mutually agreed to in writing by the parties. Such adverse final judgment shall include any cross-claim, counterclaim, or claim for indemnity or contribution arising from the claim of medical malpractice. Upon notification of the existence of an unsatisfied judgment or payment pursuant to this subparagraph, the department shall notify the licensee by certified mail that he or she shall be subject to disciplinary action unless, within 30 days from the date of mailing, he or she either: a. Shows proof that the unsatisfied judgment has been paid in the amount specified in this subparagraph; or b. Furnishes the department with a copy of a timely filed notice of appeal and either: (I) A copy of a supersedeas bond properly posted in the amount required by law; or (II) An order from a court of competent jurisdiction staying execution on the final judgment pending disposition of the appeal. 2. The Department of Health shall issue an emergency order suspending the license of any licensee who, after 30 days following receipt of a notice from the Department of Health, has failed to: satisfy a medical malpractice claim against him or her; furnish the Department of Health a copy of a timely filed notice of appeal; furnish the Department of Health a copy of a supersedeas bond properly posted in the amount required by law; or furnish the Department of Health an order from a court of competent jurisdiction staying execution on the final judgment pending disposition of the appeal. 3. Upon the next meeting of the probable cause panel of the board following 30 days after the date of mailing the notice of disciplinary action to the licensee, the panel shall make a determination of whether probable cause exists to take disciplinary action against the licensee pursuant to subparagraph 1. 4. If the board determines that the factual requirements of subparagraph 1. are met, it shall take disciplinary action as it deems appropriate against the licensee. Such disciplinary action shall include, at a minimum, probation of the license with the restriction that the licensee must make payments to the judgment creditor on a schedule determined by the board to be reasonable and within the financial capability of the physician. Notwithstanding any other disciplinary penalty imposed, the disciplinary penalty may include suspension of the license for a period not to exceed 5 years. In the event that an agreement to satisfy a judgment has been met, the board shall remove any restriction on the license. 5. The licensee has completed a form supplying necessary information as required by the department. A licensee who meets the requirements of this paragraph shall be required either to post notice in the form of a sign prominently displayed in the reception area and clearly noticeable by all patients or to provide a written statement to any person to whom medical services are being provided. Such sign or statement shall state: “Under Florida law, physicians are generally required to carry medical malpractice insurance or otherwise demonstrate financial responsibility to cover potential claims for medical malpractice. YOUR DOCTOR HAS DECIDED NOT TO CARRY MEDICAL MALPRACTICE INSURANCE. This is permitted under Florida law subject to certain conditions. Florida law imposes penalties against noninsured physicians who fail to satisfy adverse judgments arising from claims of medical malpractice. This notice is provided pursuant to Florida law.” (6) Any deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representation by the licensee with respect to any provision of this section shall result in permanent disqualification from any exemption to mandated financial responsibility as provided in this section and shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action under s. 458.331. (7) Any licensee who relies on any exemption from the financial responsibility requirement shall notify the department, in writing, of any change of circumstance regarding his or her qualifications for such exemption and shall demonstrate that he or she is in compliance with the requirements of this section. (8) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the department shall suspend the license of any physician against whom has been entered a final judgment, arbitration award, or other order or who has entered into a settlement agreement to pay damages arising out of a claim for medical malpractice, if all appellate remedies have been exhausted and payment up to the amounts required by this section has not been made within 30 days after the entering of such judgment, award, or order or agreement, until proof of payment is received by the department or a payment schedule has been agreed upon by the physician and the claimant and presented to the department. This subsection does not apply to a physician who has met the financial responsibility requirements in paragraphs (1)(b) and (2)(b). (9) The board shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of this section.

F.S. 458.321 Inactive status.

(1) A license that has become inactive may be reactivated under s. 458.319 upon application to the department. The board shall prescribe by rule continuing education requirements as a condition of reactivating a license. The continuing education requirements for reactivating a license must not be fewer than 20 classroom hours for each year the license was inactive. (2) The board shall adopt rules relating to licenses that have become inactive and for the reactivation of inactive licenses, including criteria an applicant must meet in order to activate an inactive license.

F.S. 458.323 Itemized patient billing.

Whenever a physician licensed under this chapter renders professional services to a patient, the physician is required, upon request, to submit to the patient, the patient’s insurer, or the administrative agency for any federal or state health program under which the patient is entitled to benefits an itemized statement of the specific services rendered and the charge for each, no later than the physician’s next regular billing cycle which follows the fifth day after the rendering of professional services. A physician may not condition the furnishing of an itemized statement upon prior payment of the bill.

F.S. 458.324 Breast cancer; information on treatment alternatives.

(1) DEFINITION. — As used in this section, the term “medically viable,” as applied to treatment alternatives, means modes of treatment generally considered by the medical profession to be within the scope of current, acceptable standards. (2) COMMUNICATION OF TREATMENT ALTERNATIVES. — (a) Each physician treating a patient who is, or in the judgment of the physician is at high risk of being, diagnosed as having breast cancer shall inform such patient of the medically viable treatment alternatives available to such patient; shall describe such treatment alternatives; and shall explain the relative advantages, disadvantages, and risks associated with the treatment alternatives to the extent deemed necessary to allow the patient to make a prudent decision regarding such treatment options. In compliance with this subsection, the physician may, in his or her discretion, orally communicate such information directly to the patient or the patient’s legal representative. (b) In providing such information, the physician shall take into consideration the emotional state of the patient, the physical state of the patient, and the patient’s ability to understand the information. (c) The physician may, in his or her discretion and without restriction, recommend any mode of treatment which is in his or her judgment the best treatment for the patient. Nothing in this subsection shall reduce other provisions of law regarding informed consent. (3) RECORDS. — Every physician treating a patient who is, or in the judgment of the physician is at high risk of being, diagnosed as having breast cancer shall indicate on such patient’s medical record compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of subsection (2).

F.S. 458.325 Electroconvulsive and psychosurgical procedures.

(1) In each case of utilization of electroconvulsive or psychosurgical procedures, prior written consent shall be obtained after disclosure to the patient, if he or she is competent, or to the patient’s guardian, if he or she is a minor or incompetent, of the purpose of the procedure, the common side effects thereof, alternative treatment modalities, and the approximate number of such procedures considered necessary and that any consent given may be revoked by the patient or the patient’s guardian prior to or between treatments. (2) Before convulsive therapy or psychosurgery may be administered, the patient’s treatment record shall be reviewed and the proposed convulsive therapy or psychosurgery agreed to by one other physician not directly involved with the patient. Such agreement shall be documented in the patient’s treatment record and shall be signed by both physicians.

F.S. 458.326 Intractable pain; authorized treatment.

(1) For the purposes of this section, the term “intractable pain” means pain for which, in the generally accepted course of medical practice, the cause cannot be removed and otherwise treated. (2) Intractable pain must be diagnosed by a physician licensed under this chapter and qualified by experience to render such diagnosis. (3) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a physician may prescribe or administer any controlled substance under Schedules II-V, as provided for in s. 893.03, to a person for the treatment of intractable pain, provided the physician does so in accordance with that level of care, skill, and treatment recognized by a reasonably prudent physician under similar conditions and circumstances. (4) Nothing in this section shall be construed to condone, authorize, or approve mercy killing or euthanasia, and no treatment authorized by this section may be used for such purpose.

F.S. 458.327 Penalty for violations.

(1) Each of the following acts constitutes a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084: (a) The practice of medicine or an attempt to practice medicine without a license to practice in Florida. (b) The use or attempted use of a license which is suspended or revoked to practice medicine. (c) Attempting to obtain or obtaining a license to practice medicine by knowing misrepresentation. (d) Attempting to obtain or obtaining a position as a medical practitioner or medical resident in a clinic or hospital through knowing misrepresentation of education, training, or experience. (e) Knowingly operating, owning, or managing a nonregistered pain-management clinic that is required to be registered with the Department of Health pursuant to s. 458.3265(1). (f) Dispensing a controlled substance listed in Schedule II or Schedule III in violation of s. 465.0276. (2) Each of the following acts constitutes a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083: (a) Knowingly concealing information relating to violations of this chapter. (b) Making any willfully false oath or affirmation whenever an oath or affirmation is required by this chapter. (c) Referring any patient, for health care goods or services, to a partnership, firm, corporation, or other business entity in which the physician or the physician’s employer has an equity interest of 10 percent or more unless, prior to such referral, the physician notifies the patient of his or her financial interest and of the patient’s right to obtain such goods or services at the location of the patient’s choice. This section does not apply to the following types of equity interest: 1. The ownership of registered securities issued by a publicly held corporation or the ownership of securities issued by a publicly held corporation, the shares of which are traded on a national exchange or the over-the-counter market; 2. A physician’s own practice, whether he or she is a sole practitioner or part of a group, when the health care good or service is prescribed or provided solely for the physician’s own patients and is provided or performed by the physician or under the physician’s supervision; or 3. An interest in real property resulting in a landlord-tenant relationship between the physician and the entity in which the equity interest is held, unless the rent is determined, in whole or in part, by the business volume or profitability of the tenant or is otherwise unrelated to fair market value. (d) Leading the public to believe that one is licensed as a medical doctor, or is engaged in the licensed practice of medicine, without holding a valid, active license. (e) Practicing medicine or attempting to practice medicine with an inactive or delinquent license. (f) Knowingly prescribing or dispensing, or causing to be prescribed or dispensed, controlled substances in a nonregistered pain-management clinic that is required to be registered with the Department of Health pursuant to s. 458.3265(1).

F.S. 458.328 Office surgeries.

(1) REGISTRATION. — (a)1. An office in which a physician performs a liposuction procedure in which more than 1,000 cubic centimeters of supernatant fat is temporarily or permanently removed, a Level II office surgery, or a Level III office surgery must register with the department. A facility licensed under chapter 390 or chapter 395 may not be registered under this section. 2. The department must complete an inspection of any office seeking registration under this section before the office may be registered. (b) Each office registered under this section or s. 459.0138 must designate a physician who is responsible for the office’s compliance with the office health and safety requirements of this section and rules adopted hereunder. A designated physician must have a full, active, and unencumbered license under this chapter or chapter 459 and shall practice at the office for which he or she has assumed responsibility. Within 10 calendar days after the termination of a designated physician relationship, the office must notify the department of the designation of another physician to serve as the designated physician. The department may suspend the registration of an office if the office fails to comply with the requirements of this paragraph. (c) As a condition of registration, each office must establish financial responsibility by demonstrating that it has met and continues to maintain, at a minimum, the same requirements applicable to physicians in ss. 458.320 and 459.0085. An office in which a physician performs a gluteal fat grafting procedure must also establish financial responsibility by demonstrating that it has met and continues to maintain, at a minimum, the same requirements applicable to physicians in ss. 458.320(2)(b) or (c) and 459.0085(2)(b) or (c), as applicable. Each physician practicing at an office registered under this section or s. 459.0138 must meet the financial responsibility requirements under s. 458.320 or s. 459.0085, as applicable. (d) Each physician practicing at an office registered under this section or s. 459.0138 shall advise the board, in writing, within 10 calendar days after beginning or ending his or her practice at a registered office. (e)1. The department shall inspect a registered office at least annually, including a review of patient records, to ensure that the office is in compliance with this section and rules adopted hereunder unless the office is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency approved by the board. The inspection may be unannounced, except for the inspection of an office that meets the description of a clinic specified in s. 458.3265(1)(a)3.h., and those wholly owned and operated physician offices described in s. 458.3265(1)(a)3.g. which perform procedures referenced in s. 458.3265(1)(a)3.h., which must be announced. 2. The department must immediately suspend the registration of a registered office that refuses an inspection under subparagraph 1. The office must close during such suspension. The suspension must remain in effect for at least 14 consecutive days and may not terminate until the department issues a written declaration that the office may reopen following the department’s completion of an inspection of the office. (f) The department may suspend or revoke the registration of an office in which a procedure or surgery identified in paragraph (a) is performed for failure of any of its physicians, owners, or operators to comply with this section and rules adopted hereunder or s. 459.0138 and rules adopted thereunder. If an office’s registration is revoked for any reason, the department may deny any person named in the registration documents of the office, including the persons who own or operate the office, individually or as part of a group, from registering an office to perform procedures or office surgeries pursuant to this section or s. 459.0138 for 5 years after the revocation date. (g) The department may impose any penalty set forth in s. 456.072(2) against the designated physician for failure of the office to operate in compliance with the office health and safety requirements of this section and rules adopted hereunder or s. 459.0138 and rules adopted thereunder. (h) The actual costs of registration and inspection or accreditation shall be paid by the person seeking to register and operate the office in which a procedure or surgery identified in paragraph (a) will be performed. (2) STANDARDS OF PRACTICE. — (a) A physician may not perform any surgery or procedure identified in paragraph (1)(a) in a setting other than an office surgery setting registered under this section or a facility licensed under chapter 390 or chapter 395, as applicable. The board shall impose a fine of $5,000 per incident on a physician who violates this paragraph. (b) Office surgeries may not: 1. Be a type of surgery that generally results in blood loss of more than 10 percent of estimated blood volume in a patient with a normal hemoglobin level; 2. Require major or prolonged intracranial, intrathoracic, abdominal, or joint replacement procedures, except for laparoscopic procedures; 3. Involve major blood vessels and be performed with direct visualization by open exposure of the major blood vessel, except for percutaneous endovascular intervention; or 4. Be emergent or life threatening. (c) A physician performing a gluteal fat grafting procedure in an office surgery setting shall adhere to standards of practice under this subsection and rules adopted by the board which include, but are not limited to, all of the following: 1. A physician performing a gluteal fat grafting procedure must conduct an in-person examination of the patient while physically present in the same room as the patient no later than the day before the procedure. 2. Before a physician may delegate any duties during a gluteal fat grafting procedure, the patient must provide written, informed consent for such delegation. Any duty delegated by a physician during a gluteal fat grafting procedure must be performed under the direct supervision of the physician performing such procedure. Fat extraction and gluteal fat injections must be performed by the physician and may not be delegated. 3. Fat may only be injected into the subcutaneous space of the patient and may not cross the fascia overlying the gluteal muscle. Intramuscular or submuscular fat injections are prohibited. 4. When the physician performing a gluteal fat grafting procedure injects fat into the subcutaneous space of the patient, the physician must use ultrasound guidance, or guidance with other technology authorized under board rule which equals or exceeds the quality of ultrasound, during the placement and navigation of the cannula to ensure that the fat is injected into the subcutaneous space of the patient above the fascia overlying the gluteal muscle. Such guidance with the use of ultrasound or other technology is not required for other portions of such procedure. 5. An office in which a physician performs gluteal fat grafting procedures must at all times maintain a ratio of one physician to one patient during all phases of the procedure, beginning with the administration of anesthesia to the patient and concluding with the extubation of the patient. After a physician has commenced, and while he or she is engaged in, a gluteal fat grafting procedure, the physician may not commence or engage in another gluteal fat grafting procedure or any other procedure with another patient at the same time. (d) If a procedure in an office surgery setting results in hospitalization, the incident must be reported as an adverse incident pursuant to s. 458.351. (3) RULEMAKING. — (a) The board shall adopt by rule standards of practice for physicians who perform procedures or office surgeries pursuant to this section. (b) The board may adopt rules to administer the registration, inspection, and safety of offices in which a physician performs procedures or office surgeries pursuant to this section.

F.S. 458.329 Sexual misconduct in the practice of medicine.

The physician-patient relationship is founded on mutual trust. Sexual misconduct in the practice of medicine means violation of the physician-patient relationship through which the physician uses said relationship to induce or attempt to induce the patient to engage, or to engage or attempt to engage the patient, in sexual activity outside the scope of the practice or the scope of generally accepted examination or treatment of the patient. Sexual misconduct in the practice of medicine is prohibited.

F.S. 458.331 Grounds for disciplinary action; action by the board and department.

(1) The following acts constitute grounds for denial of a license or disciplinary action, as specified in s. 456.072(2): (a) Attempting to obtain, obtaining, or renewing a license to practice medicine by bribery, by fraudulent misrepresentations, or through an error of the department or the board. (b) Having a license or the authority to practice medicine revoked, suspended, or otherwise acted against, including the denial of licensure, by the licensing authority of any jurisdiction, including its agencies or subdivisions. The licensing authority’s acceptance of a physician’s relinquishment of a license, stipulation, consent order, or other settlement, offered in response to or in anticipation of the filing of administrative charges against the physician’s license, shall be construed as action against the physician’s license. (c) Being convicted or found guilty of, or entering a plea of nolo contendere to, regardless of adjudication, a crime in any jurisdiction which directly relates to the practice of medicine or to the ability to practice medicine. (d) False, deceptive, or misleading advertising. (e) Failing to report to the department any person who the licensee knows is in violation of this chapter or of the rules of the department or the board. However, a person who the licensee knows is unable to practice medicine with reasonable skill and safety to patients by reason of illness or use of alcohol, drugs, narcotics, chemicals, or any other type of material, or as a result of a mental or physical condition, may be reported to a consultant operating an impaired practitioner program as described in s. 456.076 rather than to the department. (f) Aiding, assisting, procuring, or advising any unlicensed person to practice medicine contrary to this chapter or to a rule of the department or the board. (g) Failing to perform any statutory or legal obligation placed upon a licensed physician. (h) Making or filing a report which the licensee knows to be false, intentionally or negligently failing to file a report or record required by state or federal law, willfully impeding or obstructing such filing or inducing another person to do so. Such reports or records shall include only those which are signed in the capacity as a licensed physician. (i) Paying or receiving any commission, bonus, kickback, or rebate, or engaging in any split-fee arrangement in any form whatsoever with a physician, organization, agency, or person, either directly or indirectly, for patients referred to providers of health care goods and services, including, but not limited to, hospitals, nursing homes, clinical laboratories, ambulatory surgical centers, or pharmacies. The provisions of this paragraph shall not be construed to prevent a physician from receiving a fee for professional consultation services. (j) Exercising influence within a patient-physician relationship for purposes of engaging a patient in sexual activity. A patient shall be presumed to be incapable of giving free, full, and informed consent to sexual activity with his or her physician. (k) Making deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in or related to the practice of medicine or employing a trick or scheme in the practice of medicine. (l) Soliciting patients, either personally or through an agent, through the use of fraud, intimidation, undue influence, or a form of overreaching or vexatious conduct. A solicitation is any communication which directly or implicitly requests an immediate oral response from the recipient. (m) Failing to keep legible, as defined by department rule in consultation with the board, medical records that identify the licensed physician or the physician extender and supervising physician by name and professional title who is or are responsible for rendering, ordering, supervising, or billing for each diagnostic or treatment procedure and that justify the course of treatment of the patient, including, but not limited to, patient histories; examination results; test results; records of drugs prescribed, dispensed, or administered; and reports of consultations and hospitalizations. (n) Exercising influence on the patient or client in such a manner as to exploit the patient or client for financial gain of the licensee or of a third party, which shall include, but not be limited to, the promoting or selling of services, goods, appliances, or drugs. (o) Promoting or advertising on any prescription form of a community pharmacy unless the form shall also state “This prescription may be filled at any pharmacy of your choice.” (p) Performing professional services which have not been duly authorized by the patient or client, or his or her legal representative, except as provided in s. 743.064, s. 766.103, or s. 768.13. (q) Prescribing, dispensing, administering, mixing, or otherwise preparing a legend drug, including any controlled substance, other than in the course of the physician’s professional practice. For the purposes of this paragraph, it shall be legally presumed that prescribing, dispensing, administering, mixing, or otherwise preparing legend drugs, including all controlled substances, inappropriately or in excessive or inappropriate quantities is not in the best interest of the patient and is not in the course of the physician’s professional practice, without regard to his or her intent. (r) Prescribing, dispensing, or administering any medicinal drug appearing on any schedule set forth in chapter 893 by the physician to himself or herself, except one prescribed, dispensed, or administered to the physician by another practitioner authorized to prescribe, dispense, or administer medicinal drugs. (s) Being unable to practice medicine with reasonable skill and safety to patients by reason of illness or use of alcohol, drugs, narcotics, chemicals, or any other type of material or as a result of any mental or physical condition. In enforcing this paragraph, the department shall have, upon a finding of the State Surgeon General or the State Surgeon General’s designee that probable cause exists to believe that the licensee is unable to practice medicine because of the reasons stated in this paragraph, the authority to issue an order to compel a licensee to submit to a mental or physical examination by physicians designated by the department. If the licensee refuses to comply with such order, the department’s order directing such examination may be enforced by filing a petition for enforcement in the circuit court where the licensee resides or does business. The licensee against whom the petition is filed may not be named or identified by initials in any public court records or documents, and the proceedings shall be closed to the public. The department shall be entitled to the summary procedure provided in s. 51.011. A licensee or certificateholder affected under this paragraph shall at reasonable intervals be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate that he or she can resume the competent practice of medicine with reasonable skill and safety to patients. (t) Notwithstanding s. 456.072(2) but as specified in s. 456.50(2): 1. Committing medical malpractice as defined in s. 456.50. The board shall give great weight to the provisions of s. 766.102 when enforcing this paragraph. Medical malpractice shall not be construed to require more than one instance, event, or act. 2. Committing gross medical malpractice. 3. Committing repeated medical malpractice as defined in s. 456.50. A person found by the board to have committed repeated medical malpractice based on s. 456.50 may not be licensed or continue to be licensed by this state to provide health care services as a medical doctor in this state. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require that a physician be incompetent to practice medicine in order to be disciplined pursuant to this paragraph. A recommended order by an administrative law judge or a final order of the board finding a violation under this paragraph shall specify whether the licensee was found to have committed “gross medical malpractice,” “repeated medical malpractice,” or “medical malpractice,” or any combination thereof, and any publication by the board must so specify. (u) Performing any procedure or prescribing any therapy which, by the prevailing standards of medical practice in the community, would constitute experimentation on a human subject, without first obtaining full, informed, and written consent. (v) Practicing or offering to practice beyond the scope permitted by law or accepting and performing professional responsibilities which the licensee knows or has reason to know that he or she is not competent to perform. The board may establish by rule standards of practice and standards of care for particular practice settings, including, but not limited to, education and training, equipment and supplies, medications including anesthetics, assistance of and delegation to other personnel, transfer agreements, sterilization, records, performance of complex or multiple procedures, informed consent, and policy and procedure manuals. (w) Delegating professional responsibilities to a person when the licensee delegating such responsibilities knows or has reason to know that such person is not qualified by training, experience, or licensure to perform them. (x) Violating a lawful order of the board or department previously entered in a disciplinary hearing or failing to comply with a lawfully issued subpoena of the department. (y) Conspiring with another licensee or with any other person to commit an act, or committing an act, which would tend to coerce, intimidate, or preclude another licensee from lawfully advertising his or her services. (z) Procuring, or aiding or abetting in the procuring of, an unlawful termination of pregnancy. (aa) Presigning blank prescription forms. (bb) Prescribing any medicinal drug appearing on Schedule II in chapter 893 by the physician for office use. (cc) Prescribing, ordering, dispensing, administering, supplying, selling, or giving any drug which is a Schedule II amphetamine or a Schedule II sympathomimetic amine drug or any compound thereof, pursuant to chapter 893, to or for any person except for: 1. The treatment of narcolepsy; hyperkinesis; behavioral syndrome characterized by the developmentally inappropriate symptoms of moderate to severe distractability, short attention span, hyperactivity, emotional lability, and impulsivity; or drug-induced brain dysfunction; 2. The differential diagnostic psychiatric evaluation of depression or the treatment of depression shown to be refractory to other therapeutic modalities; or 3. The clinical investigation of the effects of such drugs or compounds when an investigative protocol therefor is submitted to, reviewed, and approved by the board before such investigation is begun. (dd) Failing to supervise adequately the activities of those physician assistants, paramedics, emergency medical technicians, advanced practice registered nurses, or anesthesiologist assistants acting under the supervision of the physician. (ee) Prescribing, ordering, dispensing, administering, supplying, selling, or giving growth hormones, testosterone or its analogs, human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), or other hormones for the purpose of muscle building or to enhance athletic performance. For the purposes of this subsection, the term “muscle building” does not include the treatment of injured muscle. A prescription written for the drug products listed above may be dispensed by the pharmacist with the presumption that the prescription is for legitimate medical use. (ff) Prescribing, ordering, dispensing, administering, supplying, selling, or giving amygdalin (laetrile) to any person. (gg) Misrepresenting or concealing a material fact at any time during any phase of a licensing or disciplinary process or procedure. (hh) Improperly interfering with an investigation or with any disciplinary proceeding. (ii) Failing to report to the department any licensee under this chapter or under chapter 459 who the physician or physician assistant knows has violated the grounds for disciplinary action set out in the law under which that person is licensed and who provides health care services in a facility licensed under chapter 395, or a health maintenance organization certificated under part I of chapter 641, in which the physician or physician assistant also provides services. (jj) Being found by any court in this state to have provided corroborating written medical expert opinion attached to any statutorily required notice of claim or intent or to any statutorily required response rejecting a claim, without reasonable investigation. (kk) Failing to report to the board, in writing, within 30 days if action as defined in paragraph (b) has been taken against one’s license to practice medicine in another state, territory, or country. (ll) Advertising or holding oneself out as a board-certified specialist, if not qualified under s. 458.3312, in violation of this chapter. (mm) Failing to comply with the requirements of ss. 381.026 and 381.0261 to provide patients with information about their patient rights and how to file a patient complaint. (nn) Violating any provision of this chapter or chapter 456, or any rules adopted pursuant thereto. (oo) Providing deceptive or fraudulent expert witness testimony related to the practice of medicine. (pp) Applicable to a licensee who serves as the designated physician of a pain-management clinic as defined in s. 458.3265 or s. 459.0137: 1. Registering a pain-management clinic through misrepresentation or fraud; 2. Procuring, or attempting to procure, the registration of a pain-management clinic for any other person by making, or causing to be made, any false representation; 3. Failing to comply with any requirement of chapter 499, the Florida Drug and Cosmetic Act; 21 U.S.C. ss. 301-392, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; 21 U.S.C. ss. 821 et seq., the Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act; or chapter 893, the Florida Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act; 4. Being convicted or found guilty of, regardless of adjudication to, a felony or any other crime involving moral turpitude, fraud, dishonesty, or deceit in any jurisdiction of the courts of this state, of any other state, or of the United States; 5. Being convicted of, or disciplined by a regulatory agency of the Federal Government or a regulatory agency of another state for, any offense that would constitute a violation of this chapter; 6. Being convicted of, or entering a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, regardless of adjudication, a crime in any jurisdiction of the courts of this state, of any other state, or of the United States which relates to the practice of, or the ability to practice, a licensed health care profession; 7. Being convicted of, or entering a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, regardless of adjudication, a crime in any jurisdiction of the courts of this state, of any other state, or of the United States which relates to health care fraud; 8. Dispensing any medicinal drug based upon a communication that purports to be a prescription as defined in s. 465.003 or s. 893.02 if the dispensing practitioner knows or has reason to believe that the purported prescription is not based upon a valid practitioner-patient relationship; or 9. Failing to timely notify the board of the date of his or her termination from a pain-management clinic as required by s. 458.3265(3). (qq) Failing to timely notify the department of the theft of prescription blanks from a pain-management clinic or a breach of a physician’s electronic prescribing software within 24 hours as required by s. 458.3265(3). (rr) Promoting or advertising through any communication media the use, sale, or dispensing of any controlled substance appearing on any schedule in chapter 893. (ss) Dispensing a controlled substance listed in Schedule II or Schedule III in violation of s. 465.0276. (tt) Willfully failing to comply with s. 627.64194 or s. 641.513 with such frequency as to indicate a general business practice. 1 (uu) Issuing a physician certification, as defined in s. 381.986, in a manner out of compliance with the requirements of that section and rules adopted thereunder. (vv) Performing a liposuction procedure in which more than 1,000 cubic centimeters of supernatant fat is removed, a Level II office surgery, or a Level III office surgery in an office that is not registered with the department pursuant to s. 458.328 or s. 459.0138. (ww) Implanting a patient or causing a patient to be implanted with a human embryo created with the human reproductive material, as defined in s. 784.086, of the licensee, or inseminating a patient or causing a patient to be inseminated with the human reproductive material of the licensee. (2) The board may enter an order denying licensure or imposing any of the penalties in s. 456.072(2) against any applicant for licensure or licensee who is found guilty of violating any provision of subsection (1) of this section or who is found guilty of violating any provision of s. 456.072(1). In determining what action is appropriate, the board must first consider what sanctions are necessary to protect the public or to compensate the patient. Only after those sanctions have been imposed may the disciplining authority consider and include in the order requirements designed to rehabilitate the physician. All costs associated with compliance with orders issued under this subsection are the obligation of the physician. (3) In any administrative action against a physician which does not involve revocation or suspension of license, the division shall have the burden, by the greater weight of the evidence, to establish the existence of grounds for disciplinary action. The division shall establish grounds for revocation or suspension of license by clear and convincing evidence. (4) The board shall not reinstate the license of a physician, or cause a license to be issued to a person it deems or has deemed unqualified, until such time as it is satisfied that he or she has complied with all the terms and conditions set forth in the final order and that such person is capable of safely engaging in the practice of medicine. However, the board may not issue a license to, or reinstate the license of, any medical doctor found by the board to have committed repeated medical malpractice based on s. 456.50, regardless of the extent to which the licensee or prospective licensee has complied with all terms and conditions set forth in the final order and is capable of safely engaging in the practice of medicine. (5) The board shall by rule establish guidelines for the disposition of disciplinary cases involving specific types of violations. Such guidelines may include minimum and maximum fines, periods of supervision or probation, or conditions of probation or reissuance of a license. “Gross medical malpractice,” “repeated medical malpractice,” and “medical malpractice,” under paragraph (1)(t) shall each be considered distinct types of violations requiring specific individual guidelines. (6) Upon the department’s receipt from an insurer or self-insurer of a report of a closed claim against a physician pursuant to s. 627.912 or from a health care practitioner of a report pursuant to s. 456.049, or upon the receipt from a claimant of a presuit notice against a physician pursuant to s. 766.106, the department shall review each report and determine whether it potentially involved conduct by a licensee that is subject to disciplinary action, in which case the provisions of s. 456.073 shall apply. However, if it is reported that a physician has had three or more claims with indemnities exceeding $50,000 each within the previous 5-year period, the department shall investigate the occurrences upon which the claims were based and determine if action by the department against the physician is warranted. (7) Upon the department’s receipt from the Agency for Health Care Administration pursuant to s. 395.0197 of the name of a physician whose conduct may constitute grounds for disciplinary action by the department, the department shall investigate the occurrences upon which the report was based and determine if action by the department against the physician is warranted. (8) If any physician regulated by the Division of Medical Quality Assurance is guilty of such unprofessional conduct, negligence, or mental or physical incapacity or impairment that the division determines that the physician is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety and presents a danger to patients, the division shall be authorized to maintain an action in circuit court enjoining such physician from providing medical services to the public until the physician demonstrates the ability to practice with reasonable skill and safety and without danger to patients. (9) When an investigation of a physician is undertaken, the department shall promptly furnish to the physician or the physician’s attorney a copy of the complaint or document which resulted in the initiation of the investigation. For purposes of this subsection, such documents include, but are not limited to: the pertinent portions of an annual report submitted to the department pursuant to s. 395.0197(6); a report of an adverse incident which is provided to the department pursuant to s. 395.0197; a report of peer review disciplinary action submitted to the department pursuant to s. 395.0193(4) or s. 458.337, providing that the investigations, proceedings, and records relating to such peer review disciplinary action shall continue to retain their privileged status even as to the licensee who is the subject of the investigation, as provided by ss. 395.0193(8) and 458.337(3); a report of a closed claim submitted pursuant to s. 627.912; a presuit notice submitted pursuant to s. 766.106(2); and a petition brought under the Florida Birth-Related Neurological Injury Compensation Plan, pursuant to s. 766.305(2). The physician may submit a written response to the information contained in the complaint or document which resulted in the initiation of the investigation within 45 days after service to the physician of the complaint or document. The physician’s written response shall be considered by the probable cause panel. (10) A probable cause panel convened to consider disciplinary action against a physician assistant alleged to have violated s. 456.072 or this section must include one physician assistant. The physician assistant must hold a valid license to practice as a physician assistant in this state and be appointed to the panel by the Council of Physician Assistants. The physician assistant may hear only cases involving disciplinary actions against a physician assistant. If the appointed physician assistant is not present at the disciplinary hearing, the panel may consider the matter and vote on the case in the absence of the physician assistant. The training requirements set forth in s. 458.307(4) do not apply to the appointed physician assistant. Rules need not be adopted to implement this subsection. (11) The purpose of this section is to facilitate uniform discipline for those acts made punishable under this section and, to this end, a reference to this section constitutes a general reference under the doctrine of incorporation by reference.

F.S. 458.335 Prescription or administration of dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO).

(1) As used in this section, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, “physician” means a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine licensed under this chapter or chapter 459. (2) No physician shall be subject to disciplinary action by the Board of Medicine or Board of Osteopathic Medicine for prescribing or administering dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) to a patient under his or her care who has requested the substance. (3) The patient, after being fully informed as to alternative methods of treatment and their potential for cure and upon request for the administration of dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) by his or her physician, shall sign a written release, releasing the physician and, when applicable, the hospital or health facility from any liability therefor. (4) The physician shall inform the patient in writing if dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) has not been approved as a treatment or cure by the Food and Drug Administration of the United States Department of Health and Human Services for the disorder for which it is being prescribed. (5) This act shall not apply to conditions for which dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) has been approved as a treatment by the Food and Drug Administration of the United States Department of Health and Human Services.

F.S. 458.336 Drugs to treat obesity; rules establishing guidelines.

The Board of Medicine shall adopt rules to establish practice guidelines for physicians to safely prescribe phentermine, fenfluramine, and other drugs used to treat obesity.

F.S. 458.337 Reports of disciplinary actions by medical organizations and hospitals.

(1)(a) The department shall be notified when any physician: 1. Has been removed or suspended or has had any other disciplinary action taken by his or her peers within any professional medical association, society, body, or professional standards review organization established pursuant to Pub. L. No. 92-603, s. 249F, or similarly constituted professional organization, whether or not such association, society, body, or organization is local, regional, state, national, or international in scope; or 2. Has been disciplined by a licensed hospital, health maintenance organization, prepaid health clinic, ambulatory surgical center, or nursing home or the medical staff of such a hospital, health maintenance organization, prepaid health clinic, ambulatory surgical center, or nursing home, including allowing the physician to resign, for any act that constitutes a violation of this chapter. If a physician resigns or withdraws from privileges when such facility notifies the physician that it is conducting an investigation or inquiry regarding an act which is potentially a violation of this chapter, the facility shall complete its investigation or inquiry and shall notify the department of the physician’s resignation or withdrawal from privileges if the completed investigation or inquiry results in a finding that such act constitutes a violation of this chapter for which the facility would have disciplined the physician or allowed the physician to resign or withdraw from privileges. (b) Within 20 days of receipt of such notification, the department shall notify all hospitals and health maintenance organizations in the state of any disciplinary action which is severe enough for expulsion or resignation reported pursuant to subparagraph (a)2., identifying the disciplined physician, the action taken, and the reason for such action. (2) Any organization taking action as set forth in this section shall report that action to the department within 30 days of its initial occurrence, regardless of the pendency of appeals therefrom. The notification shall identify the disciplined physician, the action taken, and the reason for such action. Any organization failing to report such action pursuant to this section shall be subject to a fine assessed by the department in an amount not exceeding $1,000. (3) Any organization taking action as set forth in this section shall, upon department subpoena, provide copies of the records concerning the action to the department. However, those records shall be used solely for the purpose of the department and the board in disciplinary proceedings. The records shall otherwise be confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1). These records shall not be subject to discovery or introduction into evidence in any administrative or civil action. (4) There shall be no monetary liability on the part of, and no cause of action for damages shall arise against, the department or any association, society, body, organization, hospital, hospital medical staff, or hospital disciplinary body or its agents, investigators, witnesses, employees, or any other person for any action taken without intentional fraud in carrying out the provisions of this section. However, this exemption applies only to actions taken in providing notice pursuant to this section.

F.S. 458.339 Physician’s consent; handwriting samples; mental or physical examinations.

Every physician who accepts a license to practice medicine in this state shall, by so accepting the license or by making and filing a renewal of licensure to practice in this state, be deemed to have given his or her consent, during a lawful investigation of a complaint, to the following: (1) To render a handwriting sample to an agent of the department and, further, to have waived any objections to its use as evidence against him or her. (2) To waive the confidentiality and authorize the preparation and release of medical reports pertaining to the mental or physical condition of the physician himself or herself when the department has reason to believe that a violation of this chapter has occurred and when the department issues an order, based on the need for additional information, to produce such medical reports for the time period relevant to the complaint. As used in this section, “medical reports” means a compilation of medical treatment of the physician himself or herself which shall include symptoms, diagnosis, treatment prescribed, relevant history, and progress. (3) To waive any objection to the admissibility of the reports as constituting privileged communications. Such material maintained by the department shall remain confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) until probable cause is found and an administrative complaint issued.

F.S. 458.341 Search warrants for certain violations.

When the department has reason to believe that violations of s. 458.331(1)(q) or (r) have occurred or are occurring, its agents or other duly authorized persons may search a physician’s place of practice at reasonable hours for purposes of securing such evidence as may be needed for prosecution. Such evidence shall not include any medical records of patients unless pursuant to the patients’ written consent. Notwithstanding the consent of the patient, such records maintained by the department are confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1). This section shall not limit the psychotherapist-patient privileges of s. 90.503. Prior to a search, the department shall secure a search warrant from any judge authorized by law to issue them. The search warrant shall be issued upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation particularly describing the things to be seized. The application for the warrant shall be sworn to and subscribed, and the judge may require further testimony from witnesses, supporting affidavits, or depositions in writing to support the application. The application and supporting information, if required, must set forth the facts tending to establish the grounds of the application or probable cause that they exist. If the judge is satisfied that probable cause exists, he or she shall issue a search warrant signed by him or her with the judge’s name of office to any agent or other person duly authorized by the department to execute process, commanding the agent or person to search the place described in the warrant for the property specified. The search warrant shall be served only by the agent or person mentioned in it and by no other person except an aide of the agent or person when such agent or person is present and acting in its execution.

F.S. 458.343 Subpoena of certain records.

Notwithstanding the provisions of s. 456.057, the department may issue subpoenas duces tecum requiring the names and addresses of some or all of the patients of a physician against whom a complaint has been filed pursuant to s. 456.073.

F.S. 458.345 Registration of resident physicians, interns, and fellows; list of hospital employees; prescribing of medicinal drugs; penalty.

(1) Any person desiring to practice as a resident physician, assistant resident physician, house physician, intern, or fellow in fellowship training which leads to subspecialty board certification in this state, or any person desiring to practice as a resident physician, assistant resident physician, house physician, intern, or fellow in fellowship training in a teaching hospital in this state as defined in s. 408.07 or s. 395.805(2), who does not hold a valid, active license issued under this chapter shall apply to the department to be registered and shall remit a fee not to exceed $300 as set by the board. The department shall register any applicant the board certifies has met the following requirements: (a) Is at least 21 years of age. (b) Has not committed any act or offense within or without the state which would constitute the basis for refusal to certify an application for licensure pursuant to s. 458.331. (c) Is a graduate of a medical school or college as specified in s. 458.311(1)(f). (2) The board shall not certify to the department for registration any applicant who is under investigation in any state or jurisdiction for an act which would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under s. 458.331 until such time as the investigation is completed, at which time the provisions of s. 458.331 shall apply. (3) Every hospital or teaching hospital employing or utilizing the services of a resident physician, assistant resident physician, house physician, intern, or fellow in fellowship training registered under this section shall designate a person who shall, on dates designated by the board, in consultation with the department, furnish the department with a list of such hospital’s employees and such other information as the board may direct. The chief executive officer of each such hospital shall provide the executive director of the board with the name, title, and address of the person responsible for furnishing such reports. (4) Registration under this section shall automatically expire after 2 years without further action by the board or the department unless an application for renewal is approved by the board. No person registered under this section may be employed or utilized as a house physician or act as a resident physician, an assistant resident physician, an intern, or a fellow in fellowship training in a hospital or teaching hospital of this state for more than 2 years without a valid, active license or renewal of registration under this section. Requirements for renewal of registration shall be established by rule of the board. An application fee not to exceed $300 as set by the board shall accompany the application for renewal, except that resident physicians, assistant resident physicians, interns, and fellows in fellowship training registered under this section shall be exempt from payment of any renewal fees. (5) Notwithstanding any provision of this section or s. 120.52 to the contrary, any person who is registered under this section is subject to the provisions of s. 458.331. (6) A person registered as a resident physician under this section may in the normal course of his or her employment prescribe medicinal drugs described in schedules set out in chapter 893 when: (a) The person prescribes such medicinal drugs through use of a Drug Enforcement Administration number issued to the hospital or teaching hospital by which the person is employed or at which the person’s services are used; (b) The person is identified by a discrete suffix to the identification number issued to such hospital; and (c) The use of the institutional identification number and individual suffixes conforms to the requirements of the federal Drug Enforcement Administration. (7) Any person willfully violating this section commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083. (8) The board shall promulgate rules pursuant to ss. 120.536(1) and 120.54 as necessary to implement this section.

F.S. 458.347 Physician assistants.

(1) LEGISLATIVE INTENT. — The purpose of this section is to authorize physician assistants, with their education, training, and experience in the field of medicine, to provide increased efficiency of and access to high-quality medical services at a reasonable cost to consumers. (2) DEFINITIONS. — As used in this section, the term: (a) “Approved program” means a physician assistant program in the United States or in its territories or possessions which is accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant or, for programs before 2001, accredited by its equivalent or predecessor entities the Committee on Allied Health Education and Accreditation or the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs formally approved by the boards for the education of physician assistants. (b) “Boards” means the Board of Medicine and the Board of Osteopathic Medicine. (c) “Continuing medical education” means courses recognized and approved by the boards, the American Academy of Physician Assistants, the American Medical Association, the American Osteopathic Association, or the Accreditation Council on Continuing Medical Education. (d) “Council” means the Council on Physician Assistants. (e) “Physician assistant” means a person who is a graduate of an approved program or its equivalent or meets standards approved by the boards and is licensed to perform medical services delegated by the supervising physician. (f) “Physician assistant national certifying examination” means the Physician Assistant National Certifying Examination administered by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or its successor agency. (g) “Supervision” means responsible supervision and control. Except in cases of emergency, supervision requires the easy availability or physical presence of the licensed physician for consultation and direction of the actions of the physician assistant. For the purposes of this definition, the term “easy availability” includes the ability to communicate by way of telecommunication. The boards shall establish rules as to what constitutes responsible supervision of the physician assistant. (h) “Trainee” means a person who is currently enrolled in an approved program. (3) PERFORMANCE OF SUPERVISING PHYSICIAN. — Each physician or group of physicians supervising a licensed physician assistant must be qualified in the medical areas in which the physician assistant is to perform and shall be individually or collectively responsible and liable for the performance and the acts and omissions of the physician assistant. A physician may not supervise more than 10 currently licensed physician assistants at any one time. A physician supervising a physician assistant pursuant to this section may not be required to review and cosign charts or medical records prepared by such physician assistant. (4) PERFORMANCE OF PHYSICIAN ASSISTANTS. — (a) The boards shall adopt, by rule, the general principles that supervising physicians must use in developing the scope of practice of a physician assistant under direct supervision and under indirect supervision. These principles shall recognize the diversity of both specialty and practice settings in which physician assistants are used. (b) This chapter does not prevent third-party payors from reimbursing employers of physician assistants for covered services rendered by licensed physician assistants. (c) Licensed physician assistants may not be denied clinical hospital privileges, except for cause, so long as the supervising physician is a staff member in good standing. (d) A supervisory physician may delegate to a licensed physician assistant, pursuant to a written protocol, the authority to act according to s. 154.04(1)(c). Such delegated authority is limited to the supervising physician’s practice in connection with a county health department as defined and established pursuant to chapter 154. The boards shall adopt rules governing the supervision of physician assistants by physicians in county health departments. (e) A supervising physician may delegate to a fully licensed physician assistant the authority to prescribe or dispense any medication used in the supervising physician’s practice unless such medication is listed on the formulary created pursuant to paragraph (f). A fully licensed physician assistant may only prescribe or dispense such medication under the following circumstances: 1. A physician assistant must clearly identify to the patient that he or she is a physician assistant. 2. The supervising physician must notify the department of his or her intent to delegate, on a department-approved form, before delegating such authority and of any change in prescriptive privileges of the physician assistant. Authority to dispense may be delegated only by a supervising physician who is registered as a dispensing practitioner in compliance with s. 465.0276. 3. A fully licensed physician assistant may procure medical devices and drugs unless the medication is listed on the formulary created pursuant to paragraph (f). 4. The physician assistant must complete a minimum of 10 continuing medical education hours in the specialty practice in which the physician assistant has prescriptive privileges with each licensure renewal. Three of the 10 hours must consist of a continuing education course on the safe and effective prescribing of controlled substance medications which is offered by a statewide professional association of physicians in this state accredited to provide educational activities designated for the American Medical Association Physician’s Recognition Award Category 1 credit, designated by the American Academy of Physician Assistants as a Category 1 credit, or designated by the American Osteopathic Association as a Category 1-A credit. 5. The prescription may be in paper or electronic form but must comply with ss. 456.0392(1) and 456.42(1) and chapter 499 and must contain the physician assistant’s name, address, and telephone number and the name of each of his or her supervising physicians. Unless it is a drug or drug sample dispensed by the physician assistant, the prescription must be filled in a pharmacy permitted under chapter 465 and must be dispensed in that pharmacy by a pharmacist licensed under chapter 465. 6. The physician assistant must note the prescription or dispensing of medication in the appropriate medical record. (f)1. The council shall establish a formulary of medicinal drugs that a fully licensed physician assistant having prescribing authority under this section or s. 459.022 may not prescribe. The formulary must include general anesthetics and radiographic contrast materials and must limit the prescription of Schedule II controlled substances as listed in s. 893.03 to a 7-day supply. The formulary must also restrict the prescribing of Schedule II psychiatric mental health controlled substances for children younger than 18 years of age to a 14-day supply, provided the physician assistant is under the supervision of a pediatrician, a family practice physician, an internal medicine physician, or a psychiatrist. 2. In establishing the formulary, the council shall consult with a pharmacist licensed under chapter 465, but not licensed under this chapter or chapter 459, who shall be selected by the State Surgeon General. 3. Only the council shall add to, delete from, or modify the formulary. Any person who requests an addition, a deletion, or a modification of a medicinal drug listed on such formulary has the burden of proof to show cause why such addition, deletion, or modification should be made. 4. The boards shall adopt the formulary required by this paragraph, and each addition, deletion, or modification to the formulary, by rule. Notwithstanding any provision of chapter 120 to the contrary, the formulary rule shall be effective 60 days after the date it is filed with the Secretary of State. Upon adoption of the formulary, the department shall mail a copy of such formulary to each fully licensed physician assistant having prescribing authority under this section or s. 459.022, and to each pharmacy licensed by the state. The boards shall establish, by rule, a fee not to exceed $200 to fund the provisions of paragraph (e) and this paragraph. (g) A supervisory physician may delegate to a licensed physician assistant the authority to, and the licensed physician assistant acting under the direction of the supervisory physician may, order any medication for administration to the supervisory physician’s patient in a facility licensed under chapter 395 or part II of chapter 400, notwithstanding any provisions in chapter 465 or chapter 893 which may prohibit this delegation. (h) A licensed physician assistant may perform services delegated by the supervising physician in the physician assistant’s practice in accordance with his or her education and training unless expressly prohibited under this chapter, chapter 459, or rules adopted under this chapter or chapter 459. (i) Except for a physician certification under s. 381.986, a physician assistant may authenticate any document with his or her signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit, or endorsement if such document may be so authenticated by the signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit, or endorsement of a physician, except those required for s. 381.986. Such documents include, but are not limited to, any of the following: 1. Initiation of an involuntary examination pursuant to s. 394.463. 2. Do-not-resuscitate orders or physician orders for the administration of life-sustaining treatment. 3. Death certificates. 4. School physical examinations. 5. Medical examinations for workers’ compensation claims, except medical examinations required for the evaluation and assignment of the claimant’s date of maximum medical improvement as defined in s. 440.02 and for the impairment rating, if any, under s. 440.15. 6. Orders for physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech-language therapy, home health services, or durable medical equipment. (j) A physician assistant may supervise medical assistants as defined in this chapter. (k) This chapter authorizes third-party payors to reimburse employers of physician assistants for covered services rendered by licensed physician assistants. Payment for services within the physician assistant’s scope of practice must be made when ordered or performed by a physician assistant if the same service would have been covered if ordered or performed by a physician. Physician assistants are authorized to bill for and receive direct payment for the services they deliver. (5) PROGRAM APPROVAL. — (a) The boards shall approve programs, based on recommendations by the council, for the education and training of physician assistants which meet standards established by rule of the boards. The council may recommend only those physician assistant programs that hold full accreditation or provisional accreditation from the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant or its successor entity or, before 2001, from the Committee on Allied Health Education and Accreditation or the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Programs. (b) Notwithstanding any other law, a trainee may perform medical services when such services are rendered within the scope of an approved program. (6) PHYSICIAN ASSISTANT LICENSURE. — (a) Any person desiring to be licensed as a physician assistant must apply to the department. The department shall issue a license to any person certified by the council as having met all of the following requirements: 1. Is at least 18 years of age. 2. Has completed an approved program. a. For an applicant who matriculated after December 31, 2020, has received a master’s degree. b. For an applicant who matriculated on or before December 31, 2020, has received a bachelor’s or master’s degree from an approved program. c. For an applicant who graduated before July 1, 1994, has graduated from an approved program of instruction in primary health care or surgery. d. For an applicant who graduated before July 1, 1983, has received a certification as a physician assistant from the boards. e. The board may also grant a license to an applicant who does not meet the educational requirement specified in this subparagraph but who has passed the Physician Assistant National Certifying Examination administered by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants. 3. Has obtained a passing score as established by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or its equivalent or successor organization and has been nationally certified. If an applicant does not hold a current certificate issued by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or its equivalent or successor organization and has not actively practiced as a physician assistant within the immediately preceding 4 years, the applicant must retake and successfully complete the entry-level examination of the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or its equivalent or successor organization to be eligible for licensure. 4. Has completed the application form and remitted an application fee not to exceed $300 as set by the boards. An application for licensure as a physician assistant must include: a. A diploma from an approved program. b. Acknowledgment of any prior felony convictions. c. Acknowledgment of any previous revocation or denial of licensure or certification in any state. (b)1. The license must be renewed biennially. Each renewal must include: a. A renewal fee not to exceed $500 as set by the boards. b. Acknowledgment of no felony convictions in the previous 2 years. c. A completed physician assistant workforce survey, which shall be administered in the same manner as the physician survey established in s. 458.3191 and must contain the same information required in s. 458.3191(1) and (2). 2. Beginning July 1, 2018, and every 2 years thereafter, the department shall report the data collected from the physician assistant workforce surveys to the boards. 3. The department shall adopt rules to implement this paragraph. (c) Each licensed physician assistant shall biennially complete 100 hours of continuing medical education or shall hold a current certificate issued by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants. (d) Notwithstanding subparagraph (a)2., the department may grant to a recent graduate of an approved program, as specified in subsection (5), who expects to take the first examination administered by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants available for registration after the applicant’s graduation, a temporary license. The temporary license shall expire 30 days after receipt of scores of the proficiency examination administered by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants. Between meetings of the council, the department may grant a temporary license to practice based on the completion of all temporary licensure requirements. All such administratively issued licenses shall be reviewed and acted on at the next regular meeting of the council. The recent graduate may be licensed before employment. An applicant who has passed the proficiency examination may be granted permanent licensure. An applicant failing the proficiency examination is no longer temporarily licensed but may reapply for a 1-year extension of temporary licensure. An applicant may not be granted more than two temporary licenses and may not be licensed as a physician assistant until he or she passes the examination administered by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants. As prescribed by board rule, the council may require an applicant who does not pass the licensing examination after five or more attempts to complete additional remedial education or training. The council shall prescribe the additional requirements in a manner that permits the applicant to complete the requirements and be reexamined within 2 years after the date the applicant petitions the council to retake the examination a sixth or subsequent time. (e) The Board of Medicine may impose any of the penalties authorized under ss. 456.072 and 458.331(2) upon a physician assistant if the physician assistant or the supervising physician has been found guilty of or is being investigated for any act that constitutes a violation of this chapter or chapter 456. (f) An application or other documentation required to be submitted to the department under this subsection may be submitted electronically. (7) DELEGATION OF POWERS AND DUTIES. — The boards may delegate such powers and duties to the council as they may deem proper. (8) COUNCIL ON PHYSICIAN ASSISTANTS. — The Council on Physician Assistants is created within the department. (a) The council shall consist of five members appointed as follows: 1. The chairperson of the Board of Medicine shall appoint one member who is a physician and member of the Board of Medicine who supervises a physician assistant in the physician’s practice. 2. The chairperson of the Board of Osteopathic Medicine shall appoint one member who is a physician and member of the Board of Osteopathic Medicine who supervises a physician assistant in the physician’s practice. 3. The State Surgeon General or his or her designee shall appoint three fully licensed physician assistants licensed under this chapter or chapter 459. (b) Members shall be appointed to terms of 4 years, except that of the initial appointments, two members shall be appointed to terms of 2 years, two members shall be appointed to terms of 3 years, and one member shall be appointed to a term of 4 years, as established by rule of the boards. Council members may not serve more than two consecutive terms. The council shall annually elect a chairperson from among its members. (c) The council shall: 1. Recommend to the department the licensure of physician assistants. 2. Develop all rules regulating the use of physician assistants by physicians under this chapter and chapter 459, except for rules relating to the formulary developed under paragraph (4)(f). The council shall also develop rules to ensure that the continuity of supervision is maintained in each practice setting. The boards shall consider adopting a proposed rule developed by the council at the regularly scheduled meeting immediately following the submission of the proposed rule by the council. A proposed rule submitted by the council may not be adopted by either board unless both boards have accepted and approved the identical language contained in the proposed rule. The language of all proposed rules submitted by the council must be approved by both boards pursuant to each respective board’s guidelines and standards regarding the adoption of proposed rules. If either board rejects the council’s proposed rule, that board must specify its objection to the council with particularity and include any recommendations it may have for the modification of the proposed rule. 3. Make recommendations to the boards regarding all matters relating to physician assistants. 4. Address concerns and problems of practicing physician assistants in order to improve safety in the clinical practices of licensed physician assistants. (d) When the council finds that an applicant for licensure has failed to meet, to the council’s satisfaction, each of the requirements for licensure set forth in this section, the council may enter an order to: 1. Refuse to certify the applicant for licensure; 2. Approve the applicant for licensure with restrictions on the scope of practice or license; or 3. Approve the applicant for conditional licensure. Such conditions may include placement of the licensee on probation for a period of time and subject to such conditions as the council may specify, including but not limited to, requiring the licensee to undergo treatment, to attend continuing education courses, to work under the direct supervision of a physician licensed in this state, or to take corrective action. (9) INACTIVE AND DELINQUENT STATUS. — A license on inactive or delinquent status may be reactivated only as provided in s. 456.036. (10) PENALTY. — Any person who has not been licensed by the council and approved by the department and who holds himself or herself out as a physician assistant or who uses any other term in indicating or implying that he or she is a physician assistant commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.084 or by a fine not exceeding $5,000. (11) DENIAL, SUSPENSION, OR REVOCATION OF LICENSURE. — The boards may deny, suspend, or revoke a physician assistant license if a board determines that the physician assistant has violated this chapter. (12) RULES. — The boards shall adopt rules to implement this section, including rules detailing the contents of the application for licensure and notification pursuant to subsection (6) and rules to ensure both the continued competency of physician assistants and the proper utilization of them by physicians or groups of physicians. (13) EXISTING PROGRAMS. — This section does not eliminate or supersede existing laws relating to other paramedical professions or services and is supplemental to all such existing laws relating to the licensure and practice of paramedical professions. (14) LIABILITY. — Each supervising physician using a physician assistant is liable for any acts or omissions of the physician assistant acting under the physician’s supervision and control. (15) LEGAL SERVICES. — Legal services shall be provided to the council pursuant to s. 456.009(1). (16) FEES. — The department shall allocate the fees collected under this section to the council.

F.S. 458.348 Formal supervisory relationships, standing orders, and established protocols; notice; standards.

(1) NOTICE. — (a) When a physician enters into a formal supervisory relationship or standing orders with an emergency medical technician or paramedic licensed pursuant to s. 401.27, which relationship or orders contemplate the performance of medical acts, or when a physician enters into an established protocol with an advanced practice registered nurse, which protocol contemplates the performance of medical acts set forth in s. 464.012(3) and (4), the physician shall submit notice to the board. The notice shall contain a statement in substantially the following form: I, (name and professional license number of physician) , of (address of physician) have hereby entered into a formal supervisory relationship, standing orders, or an established protocol with (number of persons) emergency medical technician(s), (number of persons) paramedic(s), or (number of persons) advanced practice registered nurse(s). (b) Notice shall be filed within 30 days of entering into the relationship, orders, or protocol. Notice also shall be provided within 30 days after the physician has terminated any such relationship, orders, or protocol. (2) PROTOCOLS REQUIRING DIRECT SUPERVISION. — All protocols relating to electrolysis or electrology using laser or light-based hair removal or reduction by persons other than physicians licensed under this chapter or chapter 459 shall require the person performing such service to be appropriately trained and work only under the direct supervision and responsibility of a physician licensed under this chapter or chapter 459. (3) SUPERVISORY RELATIONSHIPS IN MEDICAL OFFICE SETTINGS. — A physician who supervises an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant at a medical office other than the physician’s primary practice location, where the advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant is not under the onsite supervision of a supervising physician, must comply with the standards set forth in this subsection. For the purpose of this subsection, a physician’s “primary practice location” means the address reflected on the physician’s profile published pursuant to s. 456.041. (a) A physician who is engaged in providing primary health care services may not supervise more than four offices in addition to the physician’s primary practice location. For the purpose of this subsection, “primary health care” means health care services that are commonly provided to patients without referral from another practitioner, including obstetrical and gynecological services, and excludes practices providing primarily dermatologic and skin care services, which include aesthetic skin care services. (b) A physician who is engaged in providing specialty health care services may not supervise more than two offices in addition to the physician’s primary practice location. For the purpose of this subsection, “specialty health care” means health care services that are commonly provided to patients with a referral from another practitioner and excludes practices providing primarily dermatologic and skin care services, which include aesthetic skin care services. (c) A physician who supervises an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant at a medical office other than the physician’s primary practice location, where the advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant is not under the onsite supervision of a supervising physician and the services offered at the office are primarily dermatologic or skin care services, which include aesthetic skin care services other than plastic surgery, must comply with the standards listed in subparagraphs 1.-4. Notwithstanding s. 458.347(4)(e)6., a physician supervising a physician assistant pursuant to this paragraph may not be required to review and cosign charts or medical records prepared by such physician assistant. 1. The physician shall submit to the board the addresses of all offices where he or she is supervising an advanced practice registered nurse or a physician assistant which are not the physician’s primary practice location. 2. The physician must be board certified or board eligible in dermatology or plastic surgery as recognized by the board pursuant to s. 458.3312. 3. All such offices that are not the physician’s primary place of practice must be within 25 miles of the physician’s primary place of practice or in a county that is contiguous to the county of the physician’s primary place of practice. However, the distance between any of the offices may not exceed 75 miles. 4. The physician may supervise only one office other than the physician’s primary place of practice. (d) A physician who supervises an office in addition to the physician’s primary practice location must conspicuously post in each of the physician’s offices a current schedule of the regular hours when the physician is present in that office and the hours when the office is open while the physician is not present. (e) This subsection does not apply to health care services provided in facilities licensed under chapter 395 or in conjunction with a college of medicine, a college of nursing, an accredited graduate medical program, or a nursing education program; not-for-profit, family-planning clinics that are not licensed pursuant to chapter 390; rural and federally qualified health centers; health care services provided in a nursing home licensed under part II of chapter 400, an assisted living facility licensed under part I of chapter 429, a continuing care facility licensed under chapter 651, or a retirement community consisting of independent living units and a licensed nursing home or assisted living facility; anesthesia services provided in accordance with law; health care services provided in a designated rural health clinic; health care services provided to persons enrolled in a program designed to maintain elderly persons and persons with disabilities in a home or community-based setting; university primary care student health centers; school health clinics; or health care services provided in federal, state, or local government facilities. Subsection (2) and this subsection do not apply to offices at which the exclusive service being performed is laser hair removal by an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant. (4) REQUIREMENTS FOR NOTICE AND REVIEW. — Upon initial referral of a patient by another practitioner, the physician receiving the referral must ensure that the patient is informed of the type of license held by the physician and the type of license held by any other practitioner who will be providing services to the patient. When scheduling the initial examination or consultation following such referral, the patient may decide to see the physician or any other licensed practitioner supervised by the physician and, before the initial examination or consultation, shall sign a form indicating the patient’s choice of practitioner. The supervising physician must review the medical record of the initial examination or consultation and ensure that a written report of the initial examination or consultation is furnished to the referring practitioner within 10 business days following the completion of the initial examination or consultation. (5) LIMITATION ON RULEMAKING. — This section is self-executing and does not require or provide authority for additional rulemaking.

F.S. 458.351 Reports of adverse incidents in office practice settings.

(1) Any adverse incident that occurs in any office maintained by a physician for the practice of medicine which is not licensed under chapter 395 must be reported to the department in accordance with the provisions of this section. (2) Any physician or other licensee under this chapter practicing in this state must notify the department if the physician or licensee was involved in an adverse incident that occurred in any office maintained by a physician for the practice of medicine which is not licensed under chapter 395. (3) The required notification to the department must be submitted in writing by certified mail and postmarked within 15 days after the occurrence of the adverse incident. (4) For purposes of notification to the department pursuant to this section, the term “adverse incident” means an event over which the physician or licensee could exercise control and which is associated in whole or in part with a medical intervention, rather than the condition for which such intervention occurred, and which results in the following patient injuries: (a) The death of a patient. (b) Brain or spinal damage to a patient. (c) The performance of a surgical procedure on the wrong patient. (d)1. The performance of a wrong-site surgical procedure; 2. The performance of a wrong surgical procedure; or 3. The surgical repair of damage to a patient resulting from a planned surgical procedure where the damage is not a recognized specific risk as disclosed to the patient and documented through the informed-consent process if it results in: death; brain or spinal damage; permanent disfigurement not to include the incision scar; fracture or dislocation of bones or joints; a limitation of neurological, physical, or sensory function; or any condition that required the transfer of the patient. (e) A procedure to remove unplanned foreign objects remaining from a surgical procedure. (f) Any condition that required the transfer of a patient to a hospital licensed under chapter 395 from an ambulatory surgical center licensed under chapter 395 or any facility or any office maintained by a physician for the practice of medicine which is not licensed under chapter 395. (5) The department shall review each incident and determine whether it potentially involved conduct by a health care professional who is subject to disciplinary action, in which case s. 456.073 applies. Disciplinary action, if any, shall be taken by the board under which the health care professional is licensed. (6)(a) The board shall adopt rules establishing a standard informed consent form that sets forth the recognized specific risks related to cataract surgery. The board must propose such rules within 90 days after the effective date of this subsection. (b) Before formally proposing the rule, the board must consider information from physicians licensed under this chapter or chapter 459 regarding recognized specific risks related to cataract surgery and the standard informed consent forms adopted for use in the medical field by other states. (c) A patient’s informed consent is not executed until the patient, or a person authorized by the patient to give consent, and a competent witness sign the form adopted by the board. (d) An incident resulting from recognized specific risks described in the signed consent form is not considered an adverse incident for purposes of s. 395.0197 and this section. (e) In a civil action or administrative proceeding against a physician based on his or her alleged failure to properly disclose the risks of cataract surgery, a patient’s informed consent executed as provided in paragraph (c) on the form adopted by the board is admissible as evidence and creates a rebuttable presumption that the physician properly disclosed the risks. (7) The board may adopt rules to administer this section.

F.S. 458.3115 Restricted license; certain foreign-licensed physicians; examination; restrictions on practice; full licensure.

(1)(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the department shall provide procedures under which certain physicians who are or were foreign-licensed and have practiced medicine no less than 2 years may take the USMLE or an examination developed by the department, in consultation with the board, to qualify for a restricted license to practice medicine in this state. The department-developed examination shall test the same areas of medical knowledge as the Federation of State Medical Boards of the United States, Inc. (FLEX) previously administered by the Florida Board of Medicine to grant medical licensure in Florida. A person who is eligible to take and elects to take the department-developed examination, who has previously passed part 1 or part 2 of the previously administered FLEX shall not be required to retake or pass the equivalent parts of the department-developed examination, and may sit for the department-developed examination five times within 5 years. (b) A person who is eligible to take and elects to take the USMLE who has previously passed part 1 or part 2 of the previously administered FLEX shall not be required to retake or pass the equivalent parts of the USMLE up to the year 2002. (c) A person shall be eligible to take such examination for restricted licensure if the person: 1. Has taken, upon approval by the board, and completed, in November 1990 or November 1992, one of the special preparatory medical update courses authorized by the board and the University of Miami Medical School and subsequently passed the final course examination; upon approval by the board to take the course completed in 1990 or in 1992, has a certificate of successful completion of that course from the University of Miami or the Stanley H. Kaplan course; or can document to the department that he or she was one of the persons who took and successfully completed the Stanley H. Kaplan course that was approved by the board and supervised by the University of Miami. At a minimum, the documentation must include class attendance records and the test score on the final course examination; 2. Applies to the department and submits an application fee that is nonrefundable and equivalent to the fee required for full licensure; 3. Documents no less than 2 years of the active practice of medicine in any jurisdiction; 4. Submits an examination fee that is nonrefundable and equivalent to the fee required for full licensure plus the actual per applicant cost to the department to provide either examination described in this section; 5. Has not committed any act or offense in this or any other jurisdiction that would constitute a substantial basis for disciplining a physician under chapter 456 or this chapter; and 6. Is not under discipline, investigation, or prosecution in this or any other jurisdiction for an act that would constitute a violation of chapter 456 or this chapter and that substantially threatened or threatens the public health, safety, or welfare. (d) Every person eligible for restricted licensure under this section may sit for the USMLE or the department-developed examination five times within 5 calendar years. Applicants desiring to use portions of the FLEX and the USMLE may do so up to the year 2000. However, notwithstanding subparagraph (c)3., applicants applying under this section who fail the examination up to a total of five times will only be required to pay the examination fee required for full licensure for the second and subsequent times they take the examination. (e) The department and the board shall be responsible for working with one or more organizations to offer a medical refresher course designed to prepare applicants to take either licensure examination described in this section. The organizations may develop the medical refresher course, purchase such a course, or contract for such a course from a private organization that specializes in developing such courses. (f) The course shall require no less than two 16-week semesters of 16 contact hours per week for a total of 256 contact hours per student for each semester. The cost is to be paid by the students taking the course. (2)(a) Before the department may issue a restricted license to an applicant under this section, the applicant must have passed either of the two examinations described in this section. However, the board may impose reasonable restrictions on the applicant’s license to practice. These restrictions may include, but are not limited to: 1. Periodic and random department audits of the licensee’s patient records and review of those records by the board or the department. 2. Periodic appearances of the licensee before the board or the department. 3. Submission of written reports to the board or the department. (b) A restricted licensee under this section shall practice under the supervision of a full licensee approved by the board with the first year of the licensure period being under direct supervision as defined by board rule and the second year being under indirect supervision as defined by board rule. (c) The board may adopt rules necessary to implement this subsection. (3)(a) A restricted license issued by the department under this section is valid for 2 years unless sooner revoked or suspended, and a restricted licensee is subject to the requirements of chapter 456, this chapter, and any other provision of law not in conflict with this section. Upon expiration of such restricted license, a restricted licensee shall become a full licensee if the restricted licensee: 1. Is not under discipline, investigation, or prosecution for a violation which poses a substantial threat to the public health, safety, or welfare; and 2. Pays all renewal fees required of a full licensee. (b) The department shall renew a restricted license under this section upon payment of the same fees required for renewal for a full license if the restricted licensee is under discipline, investigation, or prosecution for a violation which posed or poses a substantial threat to the public health, safety, or welfare and the board has not permanently revoked the restricted license. A restricted licensee who has renewed such restricted license shall become eligible for full licensure when the licensee is no longer under discipline, investigation, or prosecution. (4) The board shall adopt rules necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.

F.S. 458.3129 Interstate Medical Licensure Compact; applicability.

A physician licensed to practice allopathic medicine under s. 456.4501 is deemed to also be licensed under this chapter.

F.S. 458.3135 Temporary certificate for visiting physicians to practice in approved cancer centers.

(1) Any physician who has been accepted for a course of training by a cancer center approved by the board and who meets all of the qualifications set forth in this section may be issued a temporary certificate to practice in a board-approved cancer center under the International Cancer Center Visiting Physician Program. A certificate may be issued to a physician who will be training under the direct supervision of a physician employed by or under contract with an approved cancer center for a period of no more than 1 year. The purpose of the International Cancer Center Visiting Physician Program is to provide to internationally respected and highly qualified physicians advanced education and training on cancer treatment techniques developed at an approved cancer center. The board may issue this temporary certificate in accordance with the restrictions set forth in this section. (2) A temporary certificate for practice in an approved cancer center may be issued without examination to an individual who: (a) Is a graduate of an accredited medical school or its equivalent, or is a graduate of a foreign medical school listed with the World Health Organization; (b) Holds a valid and unencumbered license to practice medicine in another country; (c) Has completed the application form adopted by the board and remitted a nonrefundable application fee not to exceed $300; (d) Has not committed any act in this or any other jurisdiction which would constitute the basis for disciplining a physician under s. 456.072 or s. 458.331; (e) Meets the financial responsibility requirements of s. 458.320; and (f) Has been accepted for a course of training by a cancer center approved by the board. (3) The board shall by rule establish qualifications for approval of cancer centers under this section, which at a minimum shall require the cancer center to be licensed under chapter 395 and have met the standards required to be a National Cancer Institute-designated cancer center. The board shall review the cancer centers approved under this section not less than annually to ascertain that the minimum requirements of this chapter and the rules adopted thereunder are being complied with. If it is determined that such minimum requirements are not being met by an approved cancer center, the board shall rescind its approval of that cancer center and no temporary certificate for that cancer center shall be valid until such time as the board reinstates its approval of that cancer center. (4) A recipient of a temporary certificate for practice in an approved cancer center may use the certificate to practice for the duration of the course of training at the approved cancer center so long as the duration of the course does not exceed 1 year. If at any time the cancer center is no longer approved by the board, the temporary certificate shall expire and the recipient shall no longer be authorized to practice in this state. (5) A recipient of a temporary certificate for practice in an approved cancer center is limited to practicing in facilities owned or operated by that approved cancer center and is limited to only practicing under the direct supervision of a physician who holds a valid, active, and unencumbered license to practice medicine in this state issued under this chapter or chapter 459. (6) The board shall not issue a temporary certificate for practice in an approved cancer center to any physician who is under investigation in another jurisdiction for an act that would constitute a violation of this chapter or chapter 456 until such time as the investigation is complete and the physician is found innocent of all charges. (7) A physician applying under this section is exempt from the requirements of ss. 456.039-456.046. All other provisions of chapters 456 and 458 apply. (8) In any year, the maximum number of temporary certificates that may be issued by the board under this section may not exceed 10 at each approved cancer center. (9) The board may adopt rules pursuant to ss. 120.536(1) and 120.54 as necessary to implement this section. (10) Nothing in this section may be construed to authorize a physician who is not licensed to practice medicine in this state to qualify for or otherwise engage in the practice of medicine in this state, except as provided in this section.

F.S. 458.3137 Temporary certificate for visiting physicians to obtain medical privileges for instructional purposes in conjunction with certain plastic surgery or other medical or surgical training programs and educational symposiums.

(1) A physician who has been invited by: (a) A plastic surgery or other medical or surgical training program affiliated with a medical school in this state which is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the American Osteopathic Association or which is part of a teaching hospital as defined in s. 408.07; (b) A teaching hospital as defined in s. 408.07; or (c) An educational symposium cosponsored by the American Society of Plastic Surgeons, the Plastic Surgery Educational Foundation, the American Society for Aesthetic Plastic Surgery, or any other medical or surgical society in conjunction with a medical school or teaching hospital as defined in s. 408.07, may be issued a temporary certificate for limited privileges solely for purposes of providing educational training in plastic surgery or other medical or surgical procedures, as appropriate, in accordance with the restrictions set forth in this section. (2) A temporary certificate to practice medicine for educational purposes to help teach plastic surgery or other medical or surgical procedures to residents in a training program affiliated with a medical school that is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the American Osteopathic Association or that is part of a teaching hospital, or to residents of a medical school within this state in conjunction with a nationally sponsored educational symposium or an educational symposium held by a state medical school or teaching hospital, may be issued without examination, upon verification by the board that the individual: (a) Is a graduate of an accredited medical school or its equivalent or is a graduate of a foreign medical school listed with the World Health Organization. (b) Holds a valid and unencumbered license to practice medicine in another state or country. (c) Is a recognized expert in a specific area of plastic surgery or another field of medicine or surgery, as demonstrated by peer-reviewed publications, invited lectureships, and academic affiliations. (d) Has completed an application form adopted by the board and remitted a nonrefundable application fee not to exceed $300. (e) Has not committed an act in this or any other jurisdiction that would constitute a basis for disciplining a physician under s. 456.072 or s. 458.331. (f) Meets the financial responsibility requirements of s. 458.320(1) or (2). (g) Is applying only in connection with a training program or an educational symposium as described in subsection (1). (3) A temporary certificate issued under this section is valid for up to 5 days per year and expires 1 year after issuance. (4) The department may not issue more than 12 temporary certificates for a single educational symposium under this section. (5) In order for a physician who is a graduate of a foreign medical school and holds a valid and unencumbered license to practice medicine in another country but does not hold a license to practice medicine in this or another state to obtain a temporary certificate under this section, the organization sponsoring the educational symposium must pay for any medical judgments incurred by that physician by obtaining a surety bond issued by a surety company authorized to do business in this state, by establishing a certificate of deposit or a guaranteed letter of credit with a licensed and insured bank or savings institution located in the state, or by providing proof that the physician is covered under a teaching hospital’s or medical school’s medical malpractice insurance. The amount of the bond, certificate of deposit, or guaranteed letter of credit must be at least $250,000. (6) A physician applying under this section is exempt from the requirements of ss. 456.039-456.046. All other provisions of chapter 456 and this chapter apply. (7) The board may not issue a temporary certificate for practice to any physician who is under investigation in another jurisdiction for an act that would constitute a violation of this chapter or chapter 456 until such time as the investigation is complete and the physician is found innocent of all charges.

F.S. 458.3145 Medical faculty certificate.

(1) A medical faculty certificate may be issued without examination to an individual who meets all of the following criteria: (a) Is a graduate of an accredited medical school or its equivalent, or is a graduate of a foreign medical school listed with the World Health Organization which has not been excluded from consideration under s. 458.314(8). (b) Holds a valid, current license to practice medicine in another jurisdiction. (c) Has completed the application form and remitted a nonrefundable application fee not to exceed $500. (d) Has completed an approved residency or fellowship of at least 1 year or has received training that has been determined by the board to be equivalent to the 1-year residency requirement. (e) Is at least 21 years of age. (f) Is of good moral character. (g) Has not committed any act in this or any other jurisdiction which would constitute the basis for disciplining a physician under s. 458.331. (h) For any applicant who has graduated from medical school after October 1, 1992, has completed, before entering medical school, the equivalent of 2 academic years of preprofessional, postsecondary education, as determined by rule of the board, which must include, at a minimum, courses in such fields as anatomy, biology, and chemistry. 1 (i) Has been offered and has accepted a full-time faculty appointment to teach in a program of medicine at any of the following institutions: 1. The University of Florida. 2. The University of Miami. 3. The University of South Florida. 4. The Florida State University. 5. The Florida International University. 6. The University of Central Florida. 7. The Mayo Clinic College of Medicine and Science in Jacksonville, Florida. 8. The Florida Atlantic University. 9. The Johns Hopkins All Children’s Hospital in St. Petersburg, Florida. 10. Nova Southeastern University. 11. Lake Erie College of Osteopathic Medicine in Bradenton, Florida. 12. Burrell College of Osteopathic Medicine in Melbourne, Florida. 13. The Orlando College of Osteopathic Medicine. 14. Lincoln Memorial University-DeBusk College of Osteopathic Medicine in Orange Park, Florida. 15. Loma Linda University School of Medicine – AdventHealth regional campuses in Orlando, Florida. (2) The certificate authorizes the holder to practice only in conjunction with his or her faculty position at an accredited medical school and its affiliated clinical facilities or teaching hospitals that are registered with the Board of Medicine as sites at which holders of medical faculty certificates will be practicing, or a specialty-licensed children’s hospital licensed under chapter 395 that is affiliated with an accredited medical school and its affiliated clinics. Such certificate automatically expires when the holder’s relationship with the medical school is terminated or after a period of 24 months, whichever occurs sooner, and is renewable every 2 years by a holder who applies to the board on a form prescribed by the board and provides certification by the dean of the medical school that the holder is a distinguished medical scholar and an outstanding practicing physician. (3) The holder of a medical faculty certificate issued under this section has all rights and responsibilities prescribed by law for the holder of a license issued under s. 458.311, except as specifically provided otherwise by law. Such responsibilities include compliance with continuing medical education requirements as set forth by rule of the board. A hospital or ambulatory surgical center licensed under chapter 395, health maintenance organization certified under chapter 641, insurer as defined in s. 624.03, multiple-employer welfare arrangement as defined in s. 624.437, or any other entity in this state, in considering and acting upon an application for staff membership, clinical privileges, or other credentials as a health care provider, may not deny the application of an otherwise qualified physician for such staff membership, clinical privileges, or other credentials solely because the applicant is a holder of a medical faculty certificate under this section. (4) Annual review of all such certificate recipients will be made by the deans of the accredited 4-year medical schools provided in paragraph (1)(i) and reported to the Board of Medicine. (5) Notwithstanding subsection (1), any physician, when providing medical care or treatment in connection with the education of students, residents, or faculty at the request of the dean of an accredited medical school within this state or at the request of the medical director of a statutory teaching hospital as defined in s. 408.07 or a specialty-licensed children’s hospital licensed under chapter 395 that is affiliated with an accredited medical school and its affiliated clinics, may do so upon registration with the board and demonstration of financial responsibility pursuant to s. 458.320(1) or (2) unless such physician is exempt under s. 458.320(5)(a). The performance of such medical care or treatment must be limited to a single period of time, which may not exceed 180 consecutive days, and must be rendered within a facility registered under subsection (2) or within a statutory teaching hospital as defined in s. 408.07. A registration fee not to exceed $300, as set by the board, is required of each physician registered under this subsection. However, no more than three physicians per year per institution may be registered under this subsection, and an exemption under this subsection may not be granted to a physician more than once in any given 5-year period.

F.S. 458.3147 Medical school eligibility of military academy students or graduates.

Any Florida resident who is a student at or a graduate of any of the United States military academies who has command approval to apply to medical school prior to assignment to the medical corps of the United States military shall be admitted to any medical school in the State University System. Each medical school in the State University System shall admit two such applicants each academic year.

F.S. 458.3151 Temporary certificate for active duty military and veterans practicing in areas of critical need.

(1) A certificate issued pursuant to this section may be cited as the “Rear Admiral LeRoy Collins, Jr., Temporary Certificate for Practice in Areas of Critical Need.” (2) The board may issue a temporary certificate to a physician who complies with subsection (3) and who will: (a) Practice in an area of critical need; (b) Be employed by or practice in a county health department; correctional facility; Department of Veterans’ Affairs clinic; community health center funded by s. 329, s. 330, or s. 340 of the United States Public Health Services Act; or other agency or institution that is approved by the State Surgeon General and provides health care to meet the needs of underserved populations in this state; or (c) Practice for a limited time to address critical physician-specialty, demographic, or geographic needs for this state’s physician workforce as determined by the State Surgeon General. (3) To be eligible for a temporary certificate, a physician must submit to the board: (a) A complete application. (b) Proof of an active and valid license to practice in a jurisdiction of the United States. (c) If on active duty, a letter from the physician’s military command authorizing the physician to practice medicine at an approved entity in an area of critical need. (d) Documentation demonstrating the physician is serving on active duty in the United States Armed Forces as a commissioned medical officer or has served as a commissioned medical officer in the United States Armed Forces for at least 10 years and received an honorable discharge from the military. (4) The board shall use a simplified application for a temporary certificate for practice in areas of critical need to reduce administrative impediments and maximize participation. (5) The application fee and all licensure fees, including neurological injury compensation assessments, shall be waived for a physician obtaining a temporary certificate to practice in areas of critical need for the purpose of providing volunteer, uncompensated care for low-income residents. The applicant must submit an affidavit from the employing agency or institution stating that the physician will not receive any compensation for any service involving the practice of medicine. (6)(a) Within 60 days after receipt of a complete application for a temporary certificate, the board shall review the application and associated documentation and: 1. Issue the temporary certificate; 2. Deny the temporary certificate; or 3. Require the applicant to complete additional assessment, training, education, or other requirements as a condition of certification. The board shall issue a temporary certificate upon receipt of documentation demonstrating that the requirements of the board have been met. (b) If an applicant has not actively practiced medicine during the prior 3 years and the board determines the applicant may lack clinical competency, possess diminished or inadequate skills, lack necessary medical knowledge, or exhibit patterns of deficits in clinical decisionmaking, the board may, within 60 days after receipt of a complete application: 1. Deny the application; 2. Issue a temporary certificate having reasonable restrictions, including, but not limited to, a requirement that the applicant practice under the supervision of a physician approved by the board; or 3. Issue a temporary certificate upon receipt of documentation confirming that the applicant has met any reasonable conditions of the board, including, but not limited to, completing continuing education or undergoing an assessment of skills and training. (c) The board may not issue a temporary certificate for practice in areas of critical need to a physician who is under investigation in any jurisdiction of the United States for an act that would constitute a violation of this chapter until such time as the investigation is complete, at which time the provisions of s. 458.331 apply. (7) The recipient of a temporary certificate for practice in areas of critical need shall, within 30 days after accepting employment, notify the board of all approved institutions in which the licensee practices and of all approved institutions where practice privileges have been denied. A physician holding a temporary certificate for practice in areas of critical need may enter into a contract to provide volunteer health care services pursuant to s. 766.1115. (8) A temporary certificate issued under this section is valid only so long as the State Surgeon General determines that the reason for which it was issued remains a critical need to the state. The board shall review each temporary certificateholder at least annually to ascertain compliance with the minimum requirements of this chapter, including this section, and rules adopted thereunder. If it is determined that such minimum requirements are not being met, the board shall revoke such certificate or shall impose restrictions or conditions, or both, as a condition of continued practice under the certificate.

F.S. 458.3165 Public psychiatry certificate.

The board shall issue a public psychiatry certificate to an individual who remits an application fee not to exceed $300, as set by the board, who is a board-certified psychiatrist, who is licensed to practice medicine without restriction in another state, and who meets the requirements in s. 458.311(1)(a)-(g) and (5). A recipient of a public psychiatry certificate may use the certificate to work at any public mental health facility or program funded in part or entirely by state funds. (1) Such certificate shall: (a) Authorize the holder to practice only in a public mental health facility or program funded in part or entirely by state funds. (b) Be issued and renewable biennially if the State Surgeon General and the chair of the department of psychiatry at one of the public medical schools or the chair of the department of psychiatry at the accredited medical school at the University of Miami recommend in writing that the certificate be issued or renewed. (c) Automatically expire if the holder’s relationship with a public mental health facility or program expires. (d) Not be issued to a person who has been adjudged unqualified or guilty of any of the prohibited acts in this chapter. (2) The board may take disciplinary action against a certificateholder for noncompliance with any part of this section or for any reason for which a regular licensee may be subject to discipline.

F.S. 458.3175 Expert witness certificate.

(1)(a) The department shall issue a certificate authorizing a physician who holds an active and valid license to practice medicine in another state or a province of Canada to provide expert testimony in this state, if the physician submits to the department: 1. A complete registration application containing the physician’s legal name, mailing address, telephone number, business locations, the names of the jurisdictions where the physician holds an active and valid license to practice medicine, and the license number or other identifying number issued to the physician by the jurisdiction’s licensing entity; and 2. An application fee of $50. (b) The department shall approve an application for an expert witness certificate within 10 business days after receipt of the completed application and payment of the application fee if the applicant holds an active and valid license to practice medicine in another state or a province of Canada and has not had a previous expert witness certificate revoked by the board. An application is approved by default if the department does not act upon the application within the required period. A physician must notify the department in writing of his or her intent to rely on a certificate approved by default. (c) An expert witness certificate is valid for 2 years after the date of issuance. (2) An expert witness certificate authorizes the physician to whom the certificate is issued to do only the following: (a) Provide a verified written medical expert opinion as provided in s. 766.203. (b) Provide expert testimony about the prevailing professional standard of care in connection with medical negligence litigation pending in this state against a physician licensed under this chapter or chapter 459. (c) Provide expert testimony in criminal child abuse and neglect cases pursuant to chapter 827, dependency cases pursuant to chapter 39, and cases involving sexual battery of a child pursuant to chapter 794 in this state. (3) An expert witness certificate does not authorize a physician to engage in the practice of medicine as defined in s. 458.305. A physician issued a certificate under this section who does not otherwise practice medicine in this state is not required to obtain a license under this chapter or pay any license fees, including, but not limited to, a neurological injury compensation assessment. An expert witness certificate shall be treated as a license in any disciplinary action, and the holder of an expert witness certificate shall be subject to discipline by the board.

F.S. 458.3191 Physician survey.

(1) Each person who applies for licensure renewal as a physician under this chapter or chapter 459 must, in conjunction with the renewal of such license under procedures adopted by the Department of Health and in addition to any other information that may be required from the applicant, furnish the following to the Department of Health in a physician survey: (a) Licensee information, including, but not limited to: 1. Frequency and geographic location of practice within the state. 2. Practice setting. 3. Percentage of time spent in direct patient care. 4. Anticipated change to license or practice status. 5. Areas of specialty or certification. (b) Availability and trends relating to critically needed services, including, but not limited to: 1. Obstetric care and services, including incidents of deliveries. 2. Radiological services, particularly performance of mammograms and breast-imaging services. 3. Physician services for hospital emergency departments and trauma centers, including on-call hours. 4. Other critically needed specialty areas, as determined by the department. (2) Such information furnished must include a statement submitted by the physician that the information provided is true and accurate to the best of his or her knowledge and the submission does not contain any knowingly false information. (3)(a) The Department of Health shall issue a nondisciplinary citation to any physician licensed under this chapter or chapter 459 who fails to complete the survey within 90 days after the renewal of his or her license to practice as a physician. (b) The citation must notify a physician who fails to complete the survey required by this section that his or her license will not be renewed for any subsequent license renewal unless the physician completes the survey. (c) In conjunction with issuing the license renewal notice required by s. 456.038, the Department of Health shall notify each physician licensed under this chapter or chapter 459 who has failed to complete the survey at the licensee’s last known address of record with the Department of Health of the requirement that the physician survey be completed prior to the subsequent license renewal. At any subsequent license renewal, the Department of Health may not renew the license of any physician licensed under this chapter or chapter 459 until the survey required under this section is completed by the licensee. (4) The Department of Health shall adopt rules pursuant to ss. 120.536(1) and 120.54 necessary to implement this section.

F.S. 458.3192 Analysis of survey results; report.

(1) Each year, the Department of Health shall analyze the results of the physician survey required by s. 458.3191 and determine by geographic area and specialty the number of physicians who: (a) Perform deliveries of children in this state. (b) Read mammograms and perform breast-imaging-guided procedures in this state. (c) Perform emergency care on an on-call basis for a hospital emergency department. (d) Plan to reduce or increase emergency on-call hours in a hospital emergency department. (e) Plan to relocate outside the state. (f) Practice medicine in this state. (g) Plan to reduce or modify the scope of their practice. (2) The Department of Health must report its findings to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives by November 1 each year. The department shall also include in its report findings, recommendations, and strategic planning activities as provided in s. 381.4018. The department may also include other information requested by the Physician Workforce Advisory Council.

F.S. 458.3193 Confidentiality of certain information contained in physician workforce surveys.

All personal identifying information contained in records provided by physicians licensed under this chapter or chapter 459 in response to physician workforce surveys required as a condition of license renewal and held by the Department of Health is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. Information made confidential and exempt by this section shall be disclosed: (1) With the express written consent of the individual to whom the information pertains or the individual’s legally authorized representative. (2) By court order upon a showing of good cause. (3) To a research entity, if the entity seeks the records or data pursuant to a research protocol approved by the Department of Health, maintains the records or data in accordance with the approved protocol, and enters into a purchase and data-use agreement with the department, the fee provisions of which are consistent with s. 119.07(4). The department may deny a request for records or data if the protocol provides for intrusive follow-back contacts, does not plan for the destruction of confidential records after the research is concluded, is administratively burdensome, or does not have scientific merit. The agreement must restrict the release of information that would identify individuals, must limit the use of records or data to the approved research protocol, and must prohibit any other use of the records or data. Copies of records or data issued pursuant to this subsection remain the property of the department.

F.S. 458.3245 Stem cell therapy.

(1) The Legislature recognizes the significant potential of stem cell therapies in advancing medical treatments and improving patient outcomes and further recognizes the need to ensure that such therapies are provided using stem cells obtained in an ethical manner that does not involve stem cells derived from aborted fetuses. It is the intent of the Legislature to foster medical innovation while upholding ethical standards that respect the sanctity of life. By encouraging the use of stem cell sources such as adult stem cells; umbilical cord blood; and other ethically obtained human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products, the state will advance regenerative medicine in a manner consistent with the values of this state. (2) As used in this section, the term: (a) “Human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products” means articles containing or consisting of human cells or tissues that are intended for implantation, transplantation, infusion, or transfer into a human recipient. The term does not include: 1. Vascularized human organs for transplantation; 2. Whole blood or blood components or blood derivative products; 3. Secreted or extracted human products, such as milk, collagen, and cell factors, other than semen; 4. Minimally manipulated bone marrow for homologous use and not combined with another article other than water; crystalloids; or a sterilizing, preserving, or storage agent, if the addition of the agent does not raise new clinical safety concerns with respect to the bone marrow; 5. Ancillary products used in the manufacture of human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products; 6. Cells, tissues, and organs derived from animals other than humans; 7. In vitro diagnostic products; or 8. Blood vessels recovered with an organ which are intended for use in organ transplantation and labeled “For use in organ transplantation only.” (b) “Minimally manipulated” means: 1. For structural tissue, processing that does not alter the original relevant characteristics of the tissue relating to the tissue’s utility for reconstruction, repair, or replacement. 2. For cells or nonstructural tissues, processing that does not alter the relevant biological characteristics of cells or tissues. (c) “Physician” means a physician licensed under this chapter acting in the course and scope of his or her employment. (d) “Stem cell therapy” means a treatment involving the use of afterbirth placental perinatal stem cells, or human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products, which complies with the regulatory requirements provided in this section. The term does not include treatment or research using human cells or tissues that were derived from a fetus or an embryo after an abortion. (3)(a) A physician may perform stem cell therapy that is not approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration if such therapy is used for treatment or procedures that are within the scope of practice for such physician and the therapies are related to orthopedics, wound care, or pain management. (b) To ensure that the retrieval, manufacture, storage, and use of stem cells used for therapies conducted under this section meet the highest standards, any stem cells used by a physician for therapy provided under this section must: 1. Be retrieved, manufactured, and stored in a facility that is registered and regulated by the United States Food and Drug Administration; 2. Be retrieved, manufactured, and stored in a facility that is certified or accredited by one of the following entities: a. National Marrow Donor Program. b. World Marrow Donor Association. c. Association for the Advancement of Blood and Biotherapies. d. American Association of Tissue Banks; and 3. Contain viable or live cells upon post-thaw analysis and be included in a post-thaw viability analysis report for the product lot which will be sent to the physician before use with the physician’s patient. (c) A physician performing stem cell therapy may not obtain stem cells for therapies from a facility engaging in the retrieval, manufacture, or storage of stem cells intended for human use under this section unless the facility maintains valid certification or accreditation as required by this subsection. Any contract or other agreement by which a physician obtains stem cells for therapies from such a facility must include the following: 1. A requirement that the facility provide all of the following information to the physician: a. The name and address of the facility. b. The certifying or accrediting organization. c. The type and scope of certification or accreditation. d. The effective and expiration dates of the certification or accreditation. e. Any limitations or conditions imposed by the certifying or accrediting organization. 2. A requirement that the facility notify the physician within 30 days after any change in certification or accreditation status, including renewal, suspension, revocation, or expiration. (4) In the performance of any procedure using or purporting to use stem cells or products containing stem cells, the physician shall use stem cell therapy products obtained from facilities that adhere to the applicable current good manufacturing practices for the collection, removal, processing, implantation, and transfer of stem cells, or products containing stem cells, pursuant to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. ss. 301 et seq.; 52 Stat. 1040 et seq.; and 21 C.F.R. part 1271, Human Cells, Tissues, and Cellular and Tissue-Based Products. (5)(a) A physician who conducts stem cell therapy pursuant to this section shall include the following in any form of advertisement: THIS NOTICE MUST BE PROVIDED TO YOU UNDER FLORIDA LAW. This physician performs one or more stem cell therapies that have not yet been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. You are encouraged to consult with your primary care provider before undergoing any stem cell therapy. (b) The notice required under paragraph (a) must be clearly legible and in a type size no smaller than the largest type size used in the advertisement. (6)(a) A physician who conducts stem cell therapy pursuant to this section shall obtain a signed consent form from the patient before performing the stem cell therapy. (b) The consent form must be signed by the patient or, if the patient is not legally competent, the patient’s representative and must state all of the following in language the patient or his or her representative may reasonably be expected to understand: 1. The nature and character of the proposed treatment. 2. That the proposed stem cell therapy has not yet been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. 3. The anticipated results of the proposed treatment. 4. The recognized serious possible risks, complications, and anticipated benefits involved in the treatment and in the recognized possible alternative forms of treatment, including nontreatment. 5. That the patient is encouraged to consult with his or her primary care provider before undergoing any stem cell therapy. (7) This section does not apply to the following: (a) A physician who has obtained approval for an investigational new drug or device from the United States Food and Drug Administration for the use of human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products; or (b) A physician who performs stem cell therapy under an employment or other contract on behalf of an institution certified or accredited by any of the following: 1. The Foundation for the Accreditation of Cellular Therapy. 2. The Blood and Marrow Transplant Clinical Trials Network. 3. The Association for the Advancement of Blood and Biotherapies. 4. An entity with expertise in stem cell therapy as determined by the department. (8) A violation of this section may subject the physician to disciplinary action by the board. (9) A physician who willfully performs, or actively participates in, the following commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084, and is subject to disciplinary action under this chapter and s. 456.072: (a) Treatment or research using human cells or tissues derived from a fetus or an embryo after an abortion; or (b) The sale, manufacture, or distribution of computer products created using human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products. (10) The board may adopt rules necessary to implement this section.

F.S. 458.3255 Electronic-communications diagnostic-imaging or treatment services.

Only a physician licensed in this state or otherwise authorized to practice medicine in this state may order, from a person located outside this state, electronic-communications diagnostic-imaging or treatment services for a person located in this state.

F.S. 458.3265 Pain-management clinics.

(1) REGISTRATION. — 1 (a)1. As used in this section, the term: a. “Board eligible” means successful completion of an anesthesia, physical medicine and rehabilitation, rheumatology, or neurology residency program approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the American Osteopathic Association for a period of 6 years from successful completion of such residency program. b. “Chronic nonmalignant pain” means pain unrelated to cancer which persists beyond the usual course of disease or the injury that is the cause of the pain or more than 90 days after surgery. c. “Pain-management clinic” or “clinic” means any publicly or privately owned facility: (I) That advertises in any medium for any type of pain-management services; or (II) Where in any month a majority of patients are prescribed opioids, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, or carisoprodol for the treatment of chronic nonmalignant pain. 2. Each pain-management clinic must register with the department or hold a valid certificate of exemption pursuant to subsection (2). 3. The following clinics are exempt from the registration requirement of paragraphs (c)-(m) and must apply to the department for a certificate of exemption: a. A clinic licensed as a facility pursuant to chapter 395; b. A clinic in which the majority of the physicians who provide services in the clinic primarily provide surgical services; c. A clinic owned by a publicly held corporation whose shares are traded on a national exchange or on the over-the-counter market and whose total assets at the end of the corporation’s most recent fiscal quarter exceeded $50 million; d. A clinic affiliated with an accredited medical school at which training is provided for medical students, residents, or fellows; e. A clinic that does not prescribe controlled substances for the treatment of pain; f. A clinic owned by a corporate entity exempt from federal taxation under 26 U.S.C. s. 501(c)(3); g. A clinic wholly owned and operated by one or more board-eligible or board-certified anesthesiologists, physiatrists, rheumatologists, or neurologists; or h. A clinic wholly owned and operated by a physician multispecialty practice where one or more board-eligible or board-certified medical specialists, who have also completed fellowships in pain medicine approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or who are also board-certified in pain medicine by the American Board of Pain Medicine or a board approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties, the American Board of Physician Specialties, or the American Osteopathic Association, perform interventional pain procedures of the type routinely billed using surgical codes. (b) Each clinic location shall be registered separately regardless of whether the clinic is operated under the same business name or management as another clinic. (c) As a part of registration, a clinic must designate a physician who is responsible for complying with all requirements related to registration and operation of the clinic in compliance with this section. Within 10 days after termination of a designated physician, the clinic must notify the department of the identity of another designated physician for that clinic. The designated physician shall have a full, active, and unencumbered license under this chapter or chapter 459 and shall practice at the clinic location for which the physician has assumed responsibility. Failing to have a licensed designated physician practicing at the location of the registered clinic may be the basis for a summary suspension of the clinic registration certificate as described in s. 456.073(8) for a license or s. 120.60(6). (d) The department shall deny registration to any clinic that is not fully owned by a physician licensed under this chapter or chapter 459 or a group of physicians, each of whom is licensed under this chapter or chapter 459; or that is not a health care clinic licensed under part X of chapter 400. (e) The department shall deny registration to any pain-management clinic owned by or with any contractual or employment relationship with a physician: 1. Whose Drug Enforcement Administration number has ever been revoked. 2. Whose application for a license to prescribe, dispense, or administer a controlled substance has been denied by any jurisdiction. 3. Who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or nolo contendere to, regardless of adjudication, an offense that constitutes a felony for receipt of illicit and diverted drugs, including a controlled substance listed in Schedule I, Schedule II, Schedule III, Schedule IV, or Schedule V of s. 893.03, in this state, any other state, or the United States. (f) If the department finds that a pain-management clinic does not meet the requirement of paragraph (d) or is owned, directly or indirectly, by a person meeting any criteria listed in paragraph (e), the department shall revoke the certificate of registration previously issued by the department. As determined by rule, the department may grant an exemption to denying a registration or revoking a previously issued registration if more than 10 years have elapsed since adjudication. As used in this subsection, the term “convicted” includes an adjudication of guilt following a plea of guilty or nolo contendere or the forfeiture of a bond when charged with a crime. (g) The department may revoke the clinic’s certificate of registration and prohibit all physicians associated with that pain-management clinic from practicing at that clinic location based upon an annual inspection and evaluation of the factors described in subsection (4). (h) If the registration of a pain-management clinic is revoked or suspended, the designated physician of the pain-management clinic, the owner or lessor of the pain-management clinic property, the manager, and the proprietor shall cease to operate the facility as a pain-management clinic as of the effective date of the suspension or revocation. (i) If a pain-management clinic registration is revoked or suspended, the designated physician of the pain-management clinic, the owner or lessor of the clinic property, the manager, or the proprietor is responsible for removing all signs and symbols identifying the premises as a pain-management clinic. (j) Upon the effective date of the suspension or revocation, the designated physician of the pain-management clinic shall advise the department of the disposition of the medicinal drugs located on the premises. The disposition is subject to the supervision and approval of the department. Medicinal drugs that are purchased or held by a pain-management clinic that is not registered may be deemed adulterated pursuant to s. 499.006. (k) If the clinic’s registration is revoked, any person named in the registration documents of the pain-management clinic, including persons owning or operating the pain-management clinic, may not, as an individual or as a part of a group, apply to operate a pain-management clinic for 5 years after the date the registration is revoked. (l) The period of suspension for the registration of a pain-management clinic shall be prescribed by the department, but may not exceed 1 year. (m) A change of ownership of a registered pain-management clinic requires submission of a new registration application. (2) CERTIFICATE OF EXEMPTION. — (a) A pain management clinic claiming an exemption from the registration requirements of subsection (1) must apply for a certificate of exemption on a form adopted in rule by the department. The form must require the applicant to provide: 1. The name or names under which the applicant does business. 2. The address at which the pain management clinic is located. 3. The specific exemption the applicant is claiming with supporting documentation. 4. Any other information deemed necessary by the department. (b) The department must approve or deny the certificate within 30 days after the receipt of a complete application. (c) The certificate of exemption must be renewed biennially, except that the department may issue the initial certificates of exemption for up to 3 years in order to stagger renewal dates. (d) A certificateholder must prominently display the certificate of exemption and make it available to the department or the board upon request. (e) A new certificate of exemption is required for a change of address and is not transferable. A certificate of exemption is valid only for the applicant, qualifying owners, licenses, registrations, certifications, and services provided under a specific statutory exemption and is valid only to the specific exemption claimed and granted. (f) A certificateholder must notify the department at least 60 days before any anticipated relocation or name change of the pain management clinic or a change of ownership. (g) If a pain management clinic no longer qualifies for a certificate of exemption, the certificateholder must notify the department within 3 days after becoming aware that the clinic no longer qualifies for a certificate of exemption and register as a pain management clinic under subsection (1) or cease operations. (3) PHYSICIAN RESPONSIBILITIES. — These responsibilities apply to any physician who provides professional services in a pain-management clinic that is required to be registered in subsection (1). (a) A physician may not practice medicine in a pain-management clinic, as described in subsection (5), if the pain-management clinic is not registered with the department as required by this section. Any physician who qualifies to practice medicine in a pain-management clinic pursuant to rules adopted by the Board of Medicine as of July 1, 2012, may continue to practice medicine in a pain-management clinic as long as the physician continues to meet the qualifications set forth in the board rules. A physician who violates this paragraph is subject to disciplinary action by his or her appropriate medical regulatory board. (b) Only a physician licensed under this chapter or chapter 459 may dispense medication or prescribe a controlled substance regulated under chapter 893 on the premises of a registered pain-management clinic. (c) A physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse must perform a physical examination of a patient on the same day that the physician prescribes a controlled substance to a patient at a pain-management clinic. If the physician prescribes more than a 72-hour dose of controlled substances for the treatment of chronic nonmalignant pain, the physician must document in the patient’s record the reason for prescribing that quantity. (d) A physician authorized to prescribe controlled substances who practices at a pain-management clinic is responsible for maintaining the control and security of his or her prescription blanks or electronic prescribing software used for prescribing controlled substance pain medication. A physician who issues written prescriptions shall comply with the requirements for counterfeit-resistant prescription blanks in s. 893.065 and the rules adopted pursuant to that section. A physician shall notify, in writing, the department within 24 hours after any theft or loss of a prescription blank or breach of his or her electronic prescribing software used for prescribing pain medication. (e) The designated physician of a pain-management clinic shall notify the applicable board in writing of the date of termination of employment within 10 days after terminating his or her employment with a pain-management clinic that is required to be registered under subsection (1). Each physician practicing in a pain-management clinic shall advise the Board of Medicine, in writing, within 10 calendar days after beginning or ending his or her practice at a pain-management clinic. (f) Each physician practicing in a pain-management clinic is responsible for ensuring compliance with the following facility and physical operations requirements: 1. A pain-management clinic shall be located and operated at a publicly accessible fixed location and must: a. Display a sign that can be viewed by the public that contains the clinic name, hours of operations, and a street address. b. Have a publicly listed telephone number and a dedicated phone number to send and receive faxes with a fax machine that shall be operational 24 hours per day. c. Have emergency lighting and communications. d. Have a reception and waiting area. e. Provide a restroom. f. Have an administrative area, including room for storage of medical records, supplies, and equipment. g. Have private patient examination rooms. h. Have treatment rooms, if treatment is being provided to the patients. i. Display a printed sign located in a conspicuous place in the waiting room viewable by the public with the name and contact information of the clinic’s designated physician and the names of all physicians practicing in the clinic. j. If the clinic stores and dispenses prescription drugs, comply with ss. 499.0121 and 893.07. 2. This section does not excuse a physician from providing any treatment or performing any medical duty without the proper equipment and materials as required by the standard of care. This section does not supersede the level of care, skill, and treatment recognized in general law related to health care licensure. (g) Each physician practicing in a pain-management clinic is responsible for ensuring compliance with the following infection control requirements. 1. The clinic shall maintain equipment and supplies to support infection prevention and control activities. 2. The clinic shall identify infection risks based on the following: a. Geographic location, community, and population served. b. The care, treatment, and services it provides. c. An analysis of its infection surveillance and control data. 3. The clinic shall maintain written infection prevention policies and procedures that address the following: a. Prioritized risks. b. Limiting unprotected exposure to pathogens. c. Limiting the transmission of infections associated with procedures performed in the clinic. d. Limiting the transmission of infections associated with the clinic’s use of medical equipment, devices, and supplies. (h) Each physician practicing in a pain-management clinic is responsible for ensuring compliance with the following health and safety requirements: 1. The clinic, including its grounds, buildings, furniture, appliances, and equipment shall be structurally sound, in good repair, clean, and free from health and safety hazards. 2. The clinic shall have evacuation procedures in the event of an emergency, which shall include provisions for the evacuation of disabled patients and employees. 3. The clinic shall have a written facility-specific disaster plan setting forth actions that will be taken in the event of clinic closure due to unforeseen disasters and shall include provisions for the protection of medical records and any controlled substances. 4. Each clinic shall have at least one employee on the premises during patient care hours who is certified in Basic Life Support and is trained in reacting to accidents and medical emergencies until emergency medical personnel arrive. (i) The designated physician is responsible for ensuring compliance with the following quality assurance requirements. Each pain-management clinic shall have an ongoing quality assurance program that objectively and systematically monitors and evaluates the quality and appropriateness of patient care, evaluates methods to improve patient care, identifies and corrects deficiencies within the facility, alerts the designated physician to identify and resolve recurring problems, and provides for opportunities to improve the facility’s performance and to enhance and improve the quality of care provided to the public. The designated physician shall establish a quality assurance program that includes the following components: 1. The identification, investigation, and analysis of the frequency and causes of adverse incidents to patients. 2. The identification of trends or patterns of incidents. 3. The development of measures to correct, reduce, minimize, or eliminate the risk of adverse incidents to patients. 4. The documentation of these functions and periodic review no less than quarterly of such information by the designated physician. (j) The designated physician is responsible for ensuring compliance with the following data collection and reporting requirements: 1. The designated physician for each pain-management clinic shall report all adverse incidents to the department as set forth in s. 458.351. 2. The designated physician shall also report to the Board of Medicine, in writing, on a quarterly basis the following data: a. The number of new and repeat patients seen and treated at the clinic who are prescribed controlled substance medications for the treatment of chronic, nonmalignant pain. b. The number of patients discharged due to drug abuse. c. The number of patients discharged due to drug diversion. d. The number of patients treated at the pain clinic whose domicile is located somewhere other than in this state. A patient’s domicile is the patient’s fixed or permanent home to which he or she intends to return even though he or she may temporarily reside elsewhere. (4) INSPECTION. — (a) The department shall inspect the pain-management clinic annually, including a review of the patient records, to ensure that it complies with this section and the rules of the Board of Medicine adopted pursuant to subsection (5) unless the clinic is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency approved by the Board of Medicine. (b) During an onsite inspection, the department shall make a reasonable attempt to discuss each violation with the owner or designated physician of the pain-management clinic before issuing a formal written notification. (c) Any action taken to correct a violation shall be documented in writing by the owner or designated physician of the pain-management clinic and verified by followup visits by departmental personnel. (5) RULEMAKING. — (a) The department shall adopt rules necessary to administer the registration, exemption, and inspection of pain-management clinics which establish the specific requirements, procedures, forms, and fees. (b) The Board of Medicine shall adopt rules setting forth training requirements for all facility health care practitioners who are not regulated by another board. (6) PENALTIES; ENFORCEMENT. — (a) The department may impose an administrative fine on the clinic of up to $5,000 per violation for violating the requirements of this section; chapter 499, the Florida Drug and Cosmetic Act; 21 U.S.C. ss. 301-392, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; 21 U.S.C. ss. 821 et seq., the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act; chapter 893, the Florida Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act; or the rules of the department. In determining whether a penalty is to be imposed, and in fixing the amount of the fine, the department shall consider the following factors: 1. The gravity of the violation, including the probability that death or serious physical or emotional harm to a patient has resulted, or could have resulted, from the pain-management clinic’s actions or the actions of the physician, the severity of the action or potential harm, and the extent to which the provisions of the applicable laws or rules were violated. 2. What actions, if any, the owner or designated physician took to correct the violations. 3. Whether there were any previous violations at the pain-management clinic. 4. The financial benefits that the pain-management clinic derived from committing or continuing to commit the violation. (b) Each day a violation continues after the date fixed for termination of the violation as ordered by the department constitutes an additional, separate, and distinct violation. (c) The department may impose a fine and, in the case of an owner-operated pain-management clinic, revoke or deny a pain-management clinic’s registration, if the clinic’s designated physician knowingly and intentionally misrepresents actions taken to correct a violation. (d) An owner or designated physician of a pain-management clinic who concurrently operates an unregistered pain-management clinic is subject to an administrative fine of $5,000 per day. (e) If the owner of a pain-management clinic that requires registration fails to apply to register the clinic upon a change of ownership and operates the clinic under the new ownership, the owner is subject to a fine of $5,000.

F.S. 458.3295 Concerted effort to refuse emergency room treatment to patients; penalties.

(1) A physician licensed pursuant to this chapter may not instigate or engage in a concerted effort to refuse or get physicians to refuse to render services to a patient or patients in a hospital emergency room by failing to report for duty, absenting themselves from their positions, submitting their resignations, abstaining from the full and faithful performance of their medical duties, or otherwise causing conduct that adversely affects the services of the hospital. For the purposes of this subsection, the term “concerted” means contrived or arranged by agreement, planned or devised together, or done or performed together in cooperation. (2) If a physician or group of physicians engages in conduct in violation of subsection (1), either the department or the hospital where the conduct occurs may file suit in circuit court to enjoin such conduct. (a) Upon such suit being filed, the court shall conduct a hearing, with notice to the department, the board, and all interested parties, at the earliest practicable time. If the plaintiff makes a showing that a violation of subsection (1) is in progress or that there is a clear, real, and present danger that such a violation is about to commence, the court shall issue a temporary injunction enjoining such violation. Upon final hearing, the court shall either make the injunction permanent or dissolve it. (b) A physician found to be in contempt of court for violating such an injunction shall be fined an amount considered appropriate by the court, but not less than $5,000. In determining the appropriate fine, the court shall objectively consider the extent of services lost to the hospital and its patients. (3) A violation by a physician of subsection (1) constitutes ground for disciplinary action against him or her by the board, including the suspension or revocation of the physician’s license, and subjects him or her to liability for any damages that the hospital or any patient therein sustains as a result of the violation.

F.S. 458.3311 Emergency procedures for disciplinary action.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, no later than 30 days after a third report of a professional liability claim against a licensed physician has been submitted, within a 60-month period, as required by ss. 456.049 and 627.912, the Department of Health shall initiate an emergency investigation and the Board of Medicine shall conduct an emergency probable cause hearing to determine whether the physician should be disciplined for a violation of s. 458.331(1)(t) or any other relevant provision of law.

F.S. 458.3312 Specialties.

A physician licensed under this chapter may not hold himself or herself out as a board-certified specialist unless the physician has received formal recognition as a specialist from a specialty board of the American Board of Medical Specialties or other recognizing agency that has been approved by the board. However, a physician may indicate the services offered and may state that his or her practice is limited to one or more types of services when this accurately reflects the scope of practice of the physician.

F.S. 458.3475 Anesthesiologist assistants.

(1) DEFINITIONS. — As used in this section, the term: 1 (a) “Anesthesiologist” means an allopathic physician who holds an active, unrestricted license; who has successfully completed an anesthesiology training program approved by the Accreditation Council on Graduate Medical Education or its equivalent; and who is certified by the American Board of Anesthesiology, is eligible to take that board’s examination, or is certified by the Board of Certification in Anesthesiology affiliated with the American Board of Physician Specialties. (b) “Anesthesiologist assistant” means a graduate of an approved program who is licensed to perform medical services delegated and directly supervised by a supervising anesthesiologist. (c) “Anesthesiology” means the practice of medicine that specializes in the relief of pain during and after surgical procedures and childbirth, during certain chronic disease processes, and during resuscitation and critical care of patients in the operating room and intensive care environments. (d) “Approved program” means a program for the education and training of anesthesiologist assistants which has been approved by the boards as provided in subsection (5). (e) “Boards” means the Board of Medicine and the Board of Osteopathic Medicine. (f) “Continuing medical education” means courses recognized and approved by the boards, the American Academy of Physician Assistants, the American Medical Association, the American Osteopathic Association, the American Academy of Anesthesiologist Assistants, the American Society of Anesthesiologists, or the Accreditation Council on Continuing Medical Education. (g) “Direct supervision” means the onsite, personal supervision by an anesthesiologist who is present in the office when the procedure is being performed in that office, or is present in the surgical or obstetrical suite when the procedure is being performed in that surgical or obstetrical suite and who is in all instances immediately available to provide assistance and direction to the anesthesiologist assistant while anesthesia services are being performed. (h) “Proficiency examination” means an entry-level examination approved by the boards, including examinations administered by the National Commission on Certification of Anesthesiologist Assistants. (i) “Trainee” means a person who is currently enrolled in an approved program. (2) PERFORMANCE OF SUPERVISING ANESTHESIOLOGIST. — (a) An anesthesiologist who directly supervises an anesthesiologist assistant must be qualified in the medical areas in which the anesthesiologist assistant performs and is liable for the performance of the anesthesiologist assistant. An anesthesiologist may only supervise two anesthesiologist assistants at the same time. The board may, by rule, allow an anesthesiologist to supervise up to four anesthesiologist assistants. (b) An anesthesiologist or group of anesthesiologists must, upon establishing a supervisory relationship with an anesthesiologist assistant, file with the board a written protocol that includes, at a minimum: 1. The name, address, and license number of the anesthesiologist assistant. 2. The name, address, license number, and federal Drug Enforcement Administration number of each physician who will be supervising the anesthesiologist assistant. 3. The address of the anesthesiologist assistant’s primary practice location and the address of any other locations where the anesthesiologist assistant may practice. 4. The date the protocol was developed and the dates of all revisions. 5. The signatures of the anesthesiologist assistant and all supervising physicians. 6. The duties and functions of the anesthesiologist assistant. 7. The conditions or procedures that require the personal provision of care by an anesthesiologist. 8. The procedures to be followed in the event of an anesthetic emergency. The protocol must be on file with the board before the anesthesiologist assistant may practice with the anesthesiologist or group. An anesthesiologist assistant may not practice unless a written protocol has been filed for that anesthesiologist assistant in accordance with this paragraph, and the anesthesiologist assistant may only practice under the direct supervision of an anesthesiologist who has signed the protocol. The protocol must be updated biennially. (3) PERFORMANCE OF ANESTHESIOLOGIST ASSISTANTS. — (a) An anesthesiologist assistant may assist an anesthesiologist in developing and implementing an anesthesia care plan for a patient. In providing assistance to an anesthesiologist, an anesthesiologist assistant may perform duties established by rule by the board in any of the following functions that are included in the anesthesiologist assistant’s protocol while under the direct supervision of an anesthesiologist: 1. Obtain a comprehensive patient history and present the history to the supervising anesthesiologist. 2. Pretest and calibrate anesthesia delivery systems and monitor, obtain, and interpret information from the systems and monitors. 3. Assist the supervising anesthesiologist with the implementation of medically accepted monitoring techniques. 4. Establish basic and advanced airway interventions, including intubation of the trachea and performing ventilatory support. 5. Administer intermittent vasoactive drugs and start and adjust vasoactive infusions. 6. Administer anesthetic drugs, adjuvant drugs, and accessory drugs. 7. Assist the supervising anesthesiologist with the performance of epidural anesthetic procedures and spinal anesthetic procedures. 8. Administer blood, blood products, and supportive fluids. 9. Support life functions during anesthesia health care, including induction and intubation procedures, the use of appropriate mechanical supportive devices, and the management of fluid, electrolyte, and blood component balances. 10. Recognize and take appropriate corrective action for abnormal patient responses to anesthesia, adjunctive medication, or other forms of therapy. 11. Participate in management of the patient while in the postanesthesia recovery area, including the administration of any supporting fluids or drugs. 12. Place special peripheral and central venous and arterial lines for blood sampling and monitoring as appropriate. (b) Nothing in this section or chapter prevents third-party payors from reimbursing employers of anesthesiologist assistants for covered services rendered by such anesthesiologist assistants. (c) An anesthesiologist assistant must clearly convey to the patient that he or she is an anesthesiologist assistant. (d) An anesthesiologist assistant may perform anesthesia tasks and services within the framework of a written practice protocol developed between the supervising anesthesiologist and the anesthesiologist assistant. (e) An anesthesiologist assistant may not prescribe, order, or compound any controlled substance, legend drug, or medical device, nor may an anesthesiologist assistant dispense sample drugs to patients. Nothing in this paragraph prohibits an anesthesiologist assistant from administering legend drugs or controlled substances; intravenous drugs, fluids, or blood products; or inhalation or other anesthetic agents to patients which are ordered by the supervising anesthesiologist and administered while under the direct supervision of the supervising anesthesiologist. (4) PERFORMANCE BY TRAINEES. — The practice of a trainee is exempt from the requirements of this chapter while the trainee is performing assigned tasks as a trainee in conjunction with an approved program. Before providing anesthesia services, including the administration of anesthesia in conjunction with the requirements of an approved program, the trainee must clearly convey to the patient that he or she is a trainee. (5) PROGRAM APPROVAL. — The boards shall approve programs for the education and training of anesthesiologist assistants which meet standards established by board rules. The boards may recommend only those anesthesiologist assistant training programs that hold full accreditation or provisional accreditation from the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs. (6) ANESTHESIOLOGIST ASSISTANT LICENSURE. — (a) Any person desiring to be licensed as an anesthesiologist assistant must apply to the department. The department shall issue a license to any person certified by the board to: 1. Be at least 18 years of age. 2. Have satisfactorily passed a proficiency examination with a score established by the National Commission on Certification of Anesthesiologist Assistants. 3. Be certified in advanced cardiac life support. 4. Have completed the application form and remitted an application fee, not to exceed $1,000, as set by the boards. An application must include: a. A certificate of completion of an approved graduate level program. b. A sworn statement of any prior felony convictions. c. A sworn statement of any prior discipline or denial of licensure or certification in any state. d. Two letters of recommendation from anesthesiologists. (b) A license must be renewed biennially. Each renewal must include: 1. A renewal fee, not to exceed $1,000, as set by the boards. 2. A sworn statement of no felony convictions in the immediately preceding 2 years. (c) Each licensed anesthesiologist assistant must biennially complete 40 hours of continuing medical education or hold a current certificate issued by the National Commission on Certification of Anesthesiologist Assistants or its successor. (d) An anesthesiologist assistant must notify the department in writing within 30 days after obtaining employment that requires a license under this chapter and after any subsequent change in his or her supervising anesthesiologist. The notification must include the full name, license number, specialty, and address of the supervising anesthesiologist. Submission of a copy of the required protocol by the anesthesiologist assistant satisfies this requirement. (e) The Board of Medicine may impose upon an anesthesiologist assistant any penalty specified in s. 456.072 or s. 458.331(2) if the anesthesiologist assistant or the supervising anesthesiologist is found guilty of or is investigated for an act that constitutes a violation of this chapter or chapter 456. (7) ANESTHESIOLOGIST AND ANESTHESIOLOGIST ASSISTANT TO ADVISE THE BOARD. — (a) The chairperson of the board may appoint an anesthesiologist and an anesthesiologist assistant to advise the board as to the adoption of rules for the licensure of anesthesiologist assistants. The board may use a committee structure that is most practicable in order to receive any recommendations to the board regarding rules and all matters relating to anesthesiologist assistants, including, but not limited to, recommendations to improve safety in the clinical practices of licensed anesthesiologist assistants. (b) In addition to its other duties and responsibilities as prescribed by law, the board shall: 1. Recommend to the department the licensure of anesthesiologist assistants. 2. Develop all rules regulating the use of anesthesiologist assistants by qualified anesthesiologists under this chapter and chapter 459, except for rules relating to the formulary developed under s. 458.347(4)(f). The board shall also develop rules to ensure that the continuity of supervision is maintained in each practice setting. The boards shall consider adopting a proposed rule at the regularly scheduled meeting immediately following the submission of the proposed rule. A proposed rule may not be adopted by either board unless both boards have accepted and approved the identical language contained in the proposed rule. The language of all proposed rules must be approved by both boards pursuant to each respective board’s guidelines and standards regarding the adoption of proposed rules. 3. Address concerns and problems of practicing anesthesiologist assistants to improve safety in the clinical practices of licensed anesthesiologist assistants. (c) When the board finds that an applicant for licensure has failed to meet, to the board’s satisfaction, each of the requirements for licensure set forth in this section, the board may enter an order to: 1. Refuse to certify the applicant for licensure; 2. Approve the applicant for licensure with restrictions on the scope of practice or license; or 3. Approve the applicant for conditional licensure. Such conditions may include placement of the licensee on probation for a period of time and subject to such conditions as the board specifies, including, but not limited to, requiring the licensee to undergo treatment, to attend continuing education courses, or to take corrective action. (8) PENALTY. — A person who falsely holds himself or herself out as an anesthesiologist assistant commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084. (9) DENIAL, SUSPENSION, OR REVOCATION OF LICENSURE. — The boards may deny, suspend, or revoke the license of an anesthesiologist assistant who the board determines has violated any provision of this section or chapter or any rule adopted pursuant thereto. (10) RULES. — The boards shall adopt rules to administer this section. (11) LIABILITY. — A supervising anesthesiologist is liable for any act or omission of an anesthesiologist assistant acting under the anesthesiologist’s supervision and control and shall comply with the financial responsibility requirements of this chapter and chapter 456, as applicable. (12) FEES. — The department shall allocate the fees collected under this section to the board.

F.S. 458.3485 Medical assistant.

(1) DEFINITION. — As used in this section, “medical assistant” means a professional multiskilled person dedicated to assisting in all aspects of medical practice under the direct supervision and responsibility of a physician. This practitioner assists with patient care management, executes administrative and clinical procedures, and often performs managerial and supervisory functions. Competence in the field also requires that a medical assistant adhere to ethical and legal standards of professional practice, recognize and respond to emergencies, and demonstrate professional characteristics. (2) DUTIES. — Under the direct supervision and responsibility of a licensed physician, a medical assistant may undertake the following duties: (a) Performing clinical procedures, to include: 1. Performing aseptic procedures. 2. Taking vital signs. 3. Preparing patients for the physician’s care. 4. Performing venipunctures and nonintravenous injections. 5. Observing and reporting patients’ signs or symptoms. (b) Administering basic first aid. (c) Assisting with patient examinations or treatments. (d) Operating office medical equipment. (e) Collecting routine laboratory specimens as directed by the physician. (f) Administering medication as directed by the physician. (g) Performing basic laboratory procedures. (h) Performing office procedures including all general administrative duties required by the physician. (i) Performing dialysis procedures, including home dialysis. (3) CERTIFICATION. — To obtain the designation of a certified medical assistant, the medical assistant must receive certification from a certification program accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies, a national or state medical association, or an entity approved by the board.
Source: FL Statutes (Official Site)URL: https://www.flsenate.gov/Laws/Statutes/2025/Chapter458/AllFetched: 7/8/2026

Starting a business in Florida? Florida LLC guide: costs and requirements